Dr. Walter
New Member
You say man loss these attributes which means that Adam had them. Adam was perfectly created and had within him a perfect heart towards God. Adam had a disposition and motive for righteous choices. Adam had a LOVE for righteousness. (BTW, were is it written that Adam had this disposition and love for God?) Isn't this an assumption on TULIP's part?
If Adam had all of these fantastic attributes, he loved God, he loved God's law, then tell me why God had any need to predestinate Adam and all in Adam to sin against Him? Can you explain this for me?
Moreover, you are saying that even though a man (Adam) have all of these wonderful attributes that man can still disbelieve God.
The Bible clearly and explicitly states that God made man "upright" or according to the standard of righteousness (Eccles. 7:29). The Bible clearly and explicitly states that God made man "good" (Gen. 1:31). The Bible cleary and explicitly states that God made man in His Own Image (Gen. 1:26-27). However, man was made MUTABLE.
Your primary problem is that you refuse what scriptures explicitly states and choose to philosophize away the scriptures. Romans 5:12-19 and 1 Cor. 15:40-46 are very clear that all humanity was represented in and by Adam and are held accountable for that sin in and by Adam and yet you refuse to accept that - "19 For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners,."
The term election is never used in scriptures for damnation only for salvation and yet you characterize our position in that manner. The term "predestined" is never used in scripture as the cause of sin but rather the overruling of sin and its consequences. You are bent on making our position teach that Goid is the author/source of sin. He is not. He created all things good and he created man upright but man "sought out many inventions" - Eccl. 7:29. Predestination is God purposing to either prevent what does not ultimately glorify him or overrule it and use it for ultimate good (Psa. 96:10; Rom. 8:28).
You have no concept of the Biblical doctrine of total depravity as you repeatedly misrepresent it by making the accusation that all men are capable of doing good and so you draw the conclusion that total depravity must be false. Two things you err on. First, both Jesus and Paul flatly contradict your assumption:
"There is NONE GOOD but one and that is God" - Mt. 19:16
"There is NONE GOOD" - Rom. 3:10
You obviously do not use the term "good" in the same sense as either Jesus or Paul. Neither speak of "good" from the perspective of human observation or relative goodness by comparing one person to another person or by how man counts goodness. God looks at the heart of man, his motive behind everything he thinks and does and sees that man's heart is evil by intent and therefor everything that originates from such a heart is evil by motive. That is precisely why salvation is about giving a "NEW" heart (Ezek. 36:26-27) because the natural heart of man is incapable (Deut. 29:4).
Even when your errors are completely exposed (as in total depravity, representation in and by Adam) you simply reject the evidence and return to the very same arguments as though your presumptions are correct when they are not. So discussion with you is futile because you simply repeat what has been proven to be either false or a misrepresentation.
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F HIS GOOD PLEASURE" and that is the difference between justice and grace.