Rippon said:
Originally Posted by seekingthetruth
Matthew 13:51 KJV "Jesus saith unto them, Have ye understood all these things? They say unto Him, Yea, Lord." NIV "'Have you understood all these things?' Jesus asked. 'Yes,' they replied." NIV leaves out "Lord," again, leaving out His Lordship.
Is Jesus Lord? Leaving out Lordship! Ha!
It was you on another thread who said that every word in the Bible was important. :smilewinkgrin:
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Matthew 16:20 KJV "Then charged He his disciples that they should tell no man that He was Jesus the Christ." NIV "Then he warned his disciples not to tell anyone that he was the Christ." NIV leaves out "Jesus,"
The shorter reading has the best manuscript support.
The longer reading is in the vast majority of extant manuscripts including FWIW two dating back to the 5th Century.
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Matthew 25:13 KJV "Watch therefore, for ye know neither the day nor the hour wherein the Son of man cometh." NIV "Therefore keep watch, because you do not know the day or the hour." NIV leaves out "wherein the Son of man cometh."
No,the TR added it in. It's a scribal expansion borrowed from 24:44 as per Comfort.
Prove it! Once again, it is in the vast majority of the extant mss. It is far morelikely that a scribe accidently missed it out.
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Mark 1:14 KJV "Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God." NIV "After John was put in prison, Jesus went into Galilee, proclaiming the good news of God." NIV says "the good news" and leaves out "the gospel of the kingdom of God."
The TR reading is an expansion. The NIV rendering has much better manuscript support.
Same as above. It's far more likely that a scribe accidently omitted it.
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Mark 9:24 KJV "And straightway the father of the child cried out, and said with tears, Lord, I believe; help thou mine unbelief." NIV "Immediately the boy's father exclaimed, 'I do believe; help me overcome my unbelief!'" NIV leaves out the reference to Jesus as "Lord."
The NIV rendering is superior because it is based on much better testimony.
More important is the fact that the NIV leaves out 'with tears.' Tears are very precious to the Lord Jesus (2Kings 20:5; Psalm 6:8; Isaiah 25:8; Luke 7:13; Rev 7:17etc.). When I come to write my 1,000 page thesis :laugh: on tears in the Bible, I shall certainly be including this verse. 'With tears' has excellent manuscript support.
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Luke 4:8 KJV "And Jesus said unto him, Get thee behind me, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord they God, and him only shalt thou serve." NIV "Jesus answered, 'It is written: 'Worship the Lord your God and serve him only.'" NIV leaves out "Get thee behind me Satan."
"The WH NU reading has early and diverse testimony." (Comfort p.178) No other major translation aside from KJV and NKJV have the extra words.
Since there is no doubt that the Lord Jesus did use those words, or something very similar (Matt 4:10), and they are in the huge majority of extant mss, it seems perverse to leave them out.
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Luke 4:41 KJV "And devils also came out of many, crying out, and saying, Thou art Christ the Son of God ..." NIV "Moreover, demons came out of many people, shouting, 'You are the Son of God! ...'" NIV leaves out the reference to Jesus by the devils that He was "Christ."
Again,the WH NU reading (which the NIV follows here) has better manuscript support.The "scribes could not resist adding 'the Christ.' The expansion became part of TR and KJV tradition." (p.180)
Once again, an inattentive scribe missed out the important words. Fortunately they are preserved in the vast majority of extant mss.
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Luke 7:31 KJV "And the Lord said, Whereunto then shall I liken the men of this generation? and to what are they like?" NIV "To what, then, can I compare the people of this generation? What are they like?" NIV leaves out "And the Lord said."
You are confused. The TR added it in without any Greek manuscript support.
Here undoubtedly the words should be in italics to show that they are not part of the original. However, there is no question that the Lord did not say the words, so there is no confusion.
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Luke 11:2 KJV "And he said unto them, When ye pray, say, Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done, as in heaven, so in earth." NIV "He said to them, "When you pray, say: "'Father, hallowed be your name, your kingdom come."
Again,scribal expansions seeking to harmonize portions of the so-called Lord's prayer in Matthew 6.
The C.T. mutilates the Lord's Prayer most barbarously. Praise God that the expanded form is found in the large majority of the MSS.
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Luke 11:4 KJV "And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive every one that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil." NIV "Forgive us our sins, for we also forgive everyone who sins against us. And lead us not into temptation. '"
See above.
See above.
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Luke 23:42 KJV "And he (the thief) said unto Jesus ‘Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom.’" NIV "Then he said, 'Jesus, remember me when you come into your kingdom.'" NIV leaves out "Lord," doing away with His Deity.
What a sinful thing for you to say. How can he address Jesus and tell of His kingly power and yet deny His Lordship?!
The NIV (based on superior documentary attestation) is best here. The TR based reading is inferior.
If the thief had actually used our Lord's name without any title, he would have been the only person in the whole NT to do so. In fact, of course, he acknowledged Him as Lord (cf. Rom 10:9) as the huge weight of extant mss so eloquently testifies.
I think there is a important point here. Surely we should assume that the most exalted, God-honouring text is the correct one? Why should we suppose that the Holy Spirit, whose great task it is to bring glory to the Lord Jesus (John 16:14) would fail partially in His task?
Steve