.
HP: really? Where does He say that??
Mt. 15:18
But those things which proceed out of the mouth come forth from the heart; and they defile the man.
19 For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies:
20 These are the things which defile a man:
Can we agree that righteous things do not defile a man?
Can we agree that those things that do defile a man are not righteous things?
Can we agree that Christ provides only one source for things that defile a man and it is the human heart?
Can we agree that he is speaking of more than what comes out of the mouth but also defiling actions originate from the heart as well "murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts"???
Does not Jesus also clearly state "there is none good (agathos - intrinsic goodness) but one and that is God" and does not Paul spell this out in detail in Romans 3:9-18 in regard to all fallen mankind? If no fallen man has any intrinsic goodness (agathos) then how can he have any righteous or good inclinations or choices? Can good come out of an unclean thing(Job 14:4)?
According to your rationale the heart of man is not intrinsically evil but is able to desire and choose that which is good and holy.
You are trying to establish a MIDDLE ground to include both good and evil but Jesus offers only two opposing choices in regard to the essential nature of man:
Mt 12:33
Either make the tree good, and his fruit good; or else make the tree corrupt, and his fruit corrupt: for the tree is known by his fruit.
Mt 7:16
Ye shall know them by their fruits. Do men gather grapes of thorns, or figs of thistles?
Mt 7:17
Even so every good tree bringeth forth good fruit; but a corrupt tree bringeth forth evil fruit.
Mt 7:18
A good tree cannot bring forth evil fruit, neither can a corrupt tree bring forth good fruit.
There is no MIDDLE ground according to how Jesus views the essential nature of man.
So to answer your question -THE SCRIPTURE SAYS IT!
HP: Does Scripture say that or is your philosophy showing??
James 1:14
But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
What is the source of sin according to James? ANSWER: "his OWN lusts" not external temptations as they only serve to make those lusts manifests? Note "his own lusts" are "conceived." Where are they conceived? Outside or inside of him? Where do DESIRES occur? Outside or inside of a man? Desires are just the "fruit" of the tree. If the tree is good so is its fruit but if the tree is bad so is its fruit. There is NO MIDDLE GROUND!
So to answer your question again - SCRIPTURE teaches all fruit of a man's nature is determined by its source and the source is a BAD heart. A BAD heart, one that is incapable of intrinsic goodness is therefore by definition instrinsically evil and thus BAD and can only produce BAD fruit of which desires are a product.
HP: Again, show us from Scripture the truth of the matter Biblicist. What I cannot understand is why is one with the name of Biblicist consistently pulling philosophical notions out of his hat without Biblical evidence???
I already did this in my previous post where I pointed out that only two Greek terms are translated "will" in the New Testament. The very nature of those terms clearly demonstrate that the will is nothing more or less than the faculty of expression for what you think or feel - both of which are inclusive of the human heart. Can't get much more explicit and detailed than that.
So again, to answer your question - THE SCRIPTURES DEMONSTRATE the human will is the faculty of expression of the human heart.
HP: I beg your pardon? I have tried my dead level best to keep it simple, ONE first truth of reason I have repeatedly tried you to either accept or reject clearly without qualification and you have thus far not complied, but rather have led this discussion on numerous rabbit trails in every other direction.
You did not read my response to that question. I suggest you go back and read it.
HP: Adam is the PERFECT one to start with. He starts off perfect in every way with perfect inclinations and desires. If we cannot establish clear principles in a character and attributes as white as the driven snow, how are you going to explain our nature and inclinations as messed up by thousand years of sin and its consequences, only some of which are really known to man???
It may be the perfect example to start with in your mind but certainly not in the revealed mind of God as set forth in scripture.
Again, when you take into consideration what Jesus said about what is the internal source of evil within fallen man (the heart - Mt. 15) and that there is no intrinsically "good" fallen son of Adam and it is impossible for a bad tree to bring forth good fruit, then the only VALID comparison between the pre-fallen Adam and the fallen Adam is the comparison of a good versus a bad tree - period!
Again, if Adam were created IMMUTABLY good then like God there could be no variations from intrinsic good desires and choices. However, he was not created immutably good was he?
However, the scriptures are clear about the fallen Adam that he is INTRINSICALLY bad - thus a bad tree and thus incapable of bringing forth any "good" fruit. Job infers it cannot be done (Jb. 14:4) but Jesus demands it cannot be done. If it could be done then the solution would not be a "NEW" heart would it? Scripture?
Deut. 29: 4
Yet the LORD hath not given you an heart to perceive, and eyes to see, and ears to hear, unto this day.
Ezek. 36:26
A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh.
In both cases the Addressed is the same - Israel
In both cases God is the speaker
The distinction is that in Deut God has not yet given them a heart to "preceive, and eyes to see, and ears to hear" whereas in Ezekiel God is promising to give such a heart.
So again to respond to your answer - THE SCRIPTURES TEACH IT.
HP: First who said anything about Adams heart being "immutable righteous?" He was created a man, not God. " God alone is immutably Righteous. If your point is that Adam was not God I would agree. otherwise, I fail to see your point.
You can introduce non-biblical rationalizations and ask me to put the Bible aside but if I do it it is a no, no???
I am pointing out something that even you admit is obvious but unfortunately it does not harmonize with the logic you are attempting to advance.
Adam was obviously not created with an immutable righteous heart but fallen Adam has an immutable evil heart or otherwise God's solution would not be a "NEW" heart (Ezek. 36:26) and we would not have language like "indeed neither indeed can be" (Rom. 8:7) or the two polar opposite alternatives "either good....or bad" and the absolute denial that there is any "good" but God.
HP: Again, purely philosophical notions, based on something besides the truth... but that is not the topic of discussion on this thread either. What have you done, besides postulate a philosophical theory?? Is this your admission of your personal ignorance of the reality of things? Just asking you to take a good dose of your own medicine.
This is quite amusing coming from a fella who is asking me to set the Bible aside and consider his line of logic in an attempt to build a philosophical basis - don't you think?
Let the reader be aware that all 'Biblicist' has done with the questions he asks me here is to establish his philosophical notions and develop his theories out of thin air. For a Biblicist he certainly utilizes a lot of philosophy.
Again, quite amusing that such a charge is brought against me by one who has requested that the Bible be put aside and that I should be willing to follow your philosophical rationale???