Deeds/Works of the Law

[Gup20]

Spiritual death and physical death cannot be distinguished from each other but cannot be seperated from each other as the former is the cause and the latter is the effect.

Your post deserves more time than I can give it at the moment (I'm heading out the door). But this first point is easily disproven:

Rom 8:10 And if Christ [be] in you, the body [is] dead because of sin; but the Spirit [is] life because of righteousness.​

Clearly, you can have a living spirit in dead physical body. So the question is when does the spiritual death occur?

Rom 7:9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.​

 

[The Biblicist]

Your post deserves more time than I can give it at the moment (I'm heading out the door). But this first point is easily disproven:

Rom 8:10 And if Christ [be] in you, the body [is] dead because of sin; but the Spirit [is] life because of righteousness.​

Clearly, you can have a living spirit in dead physical body.

You better reread Romans 8:10 again! Are you really going to interpret this text to mean that Christ can be "in you" and yet your body is dead physically?????? If so then what is Christ "in" that is called "you"?


That is not what he is saying or what this text means. Paul has previously defined the body as the place of indwelling sin. Hence, the body is "dead" in the sense of under condemnation due to sin. The Spirit resides in the human spirit. Victory over indwelling sin is by the indwelling Spirit.

Rom 7:9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.​

Sorry, this text refers to Paul when he was a lost rabbi who believed he was "blameless" in regard to the law (Philip. 3:2-5). He did not KNOW himself to be condemned by the law under sin just as some on this forum do not KNOW they are condemned under law even though they imagine they can be justified by their own good works. He believed that LIFE was being inherited by his works under law. When he came to the KNOWLEGE that his good works were not so good in the sight of the law his self-perception changed from LIFE to DEATH under law.

 

[billwald]

>Why do you people try and make it so complicated, God explains it all in his Word.God told Adam and Eve in Genesis 3:1-24 that because of their sin they would have to work for a living, be at war with nature, suffer pain and sickness, and eventually die.

Gen 2:16-18? In one chapter of time God changed the rules? Every dispensation is like lab experiments with rats. One experiment fails, another starts. God will not run out of rats.

 

[billwald]

>Spiritual death and physical death cannot be distinguished from each other but cannot be seperated from each other as the former is the cause and the latter is the effect.

Then explain Gen 3. In the day Adam sinned, he died and then lived several hundred years?

 

[Gup20]

We inherited death because we inherited a sinful nature. This is clearly seen in the fact that new birth is the renewal of the MORAL image of God in fallen man. Infants coming into this world are without the MORAL image of God. Hence, they are SINFUL by nature and their sins simply manifested it.

Christ paid the for the "sin" of the world and that is why dying infants go to heaven and not hell and that is why sinners are only judged "according to their works" rather than judged for Adam's representative offence.

"This is clearly seen..." This statement is ridiculous. How can something be "clearly seen" by an unproven, unbiblical, unreferenced, unsubstantiated "fact." You may as well have said "This is clearly seen because of my imagination."

Both men acted as representatives for "many" and so there is no difference between Adam and Christ in regard to acting in a representative capacity. The difference is the contrast in how they represented many.

You only dig your own hole deeper. Yes, both men acted as representatives for "many." One lead to justification, one lead to condemnation. The difference is with Adam there was 1 sin to condemnation and in Christ there is justification for many sins.

It is totally antibiblical for you to reject what I said.

I reject what you've said because it's unbiblical. You believe, contrary to scripture, that sin is passed from generation to generation all the way back to Adam and original sin. But Romans 5:12 clearly says that it is death that is passed, not sin. This is supported by Ezekiel 18.

I don't see your point! Adam and all he represented by his "OFFENCE" fell into sin by breaking the Genesis 2:16 law. After he failed in his representative capacity in the garden, he no longer acted as representative of anyone but was inclusive with all he represented by his "OFFENCE." Salvation was obtained by Adam after his fall as it is obtained by any of his posterity and that is through the representative Second Adam and His work.

The point, my friend, is that IF we all have a sin nature, and IF we all get that sin nature as an inheritance from Adam because sin (not death) is passed, then any covering for Adam's sin would effectively eliminate the sin that was passed, and that sin would cease to be passed because it would have been covered by the blood of Jesus. If Adam's sin were forgiven, then it could no longer be passed. We wouldn't inherit a sin nature (in that faulty point of view) because that sin would have been forgiven. You have - once again - effectively destroyed your entire theological position.

You can't say that Adam's representative sin is passed, and then say that if that representative sin were forgiven, that the redemption would not also be passed. If one is true, the other MUST be true. If Adam's representative sin is passed, then the forgiveness of that sin would also be passed. And if it is true that the forgiveness for Adam's sin is passed, then it destroys the idea that sin is passed, or that we inherit a sin nature from Adam because Adam's representative sin would have been forgiven.

You simply fail to understand that his representative capacity did not continue after his fall into sin. Think rationally! How can a FALLEN Adam continue to represent anyone??? Hence, Adam was not forgiven in his REPRESENTATIVE capacity but in his individual fallen capacity.

If that's true (which is isn't), then Adam's sin would cease to be representative as well. Adam committed only 1 sin in his life - he ate the fruit. If this 1 sin was representative, then forgiveness for that 1 sin would also be representative. But Romans 5 says the free gift of grace is for many sins, not 1 sin.

Don't get excited because by death passing to all men I am defining it is SPIRITUAL DEATH and this can be easily proven. Only Adam was made in the MORAL image of God. When he sinned he no longer was LIKE God morally. The MORAL image of God is restored to mankind only through new birth (Col. 3:10; 2 Cor. 3;18). Infants do not possess the "MORAL" likeness of God but demonstrate self-centered, selfish characteristics from birth.

The word MORAL does not appear in either of the passages you listed. Furthermore I see nothing about infants in either passage. You make this up as you go, don't you!

I do find it interesting, however, that 2 Corinthians 3 is all about the two covenants - faith and the law - and effect of righteousness on a person.

SPIRITUAL death reigned and where there is SPIRITUAL death sin always makes itself manifest by SINS. We do not sin in order to obtain a sin nature but we sin because we are sinners by nature "BY ONE MAN'S OFFENCE MANY WERE MADE SINNERS" by nature and by practice.

Romans 5 doesn't make that distinction. It says "death" it doesn't say "spiritual death". As a matter of fact, if you limit Romans 5 to spiritual death, you may undermine the very gospel itself.

Rom 5:6 For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.
7 For scarcely for a righteous man will one die: yet peradventure for a good man some would even dare to die.
8 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.​

If you believe this context refers only to Christ dying spiritually, then you and I may have far less common footing to stand on that I supposed. Do you believe that Christ's death and resurrection was only spiritual and that he didn't die physically? Do you believe he only spilled spiritual blood for us?

When Adam sinned Adam died immediately in spirit and ultimately in body. Infants have no MORAL image of God and therefore are spiritually dead and that is precisely why no one must teach children to do evil because they were born with an evil nature that makes itself manifest.

So you think that Adam died spiritually prior to being judged by God, prior to God pronouncing the curse? I wonder how he spoke with God in the garden if he was spiritually dead when God asked him where he was and why he was hiding.

His sin is not passed down because ALL HUMAN NATURE acted in Adam when Adam sinned - hence "all men have sinned." What is passed down is the just consequence for ALL HAVINNG SINNED IN ADAM and that is ALL HAVING THE SAME CONSEQUENCES passed down - SPIRITUAL DEATH which is inclusive of moral evil and physical and eternal death.

All have sinned means each individual has committed his own sin. It doesn't mean that we all committed Adam's sin.

If you can find any woman that does not have a physical father in or outside of the scriptures then just produce the evidence!

The onus is upon you to produce scripture to substantiate your claim that says that the sin nature is passed. Furthermore it is upon you to substantiate your implication that sin is passed through the father's genes.

 

[The Biblicist]

"This is clearly seen..." This statement is ridiculous. How can something be "clearly seen" by an unproven, unbiblical, unreferenced, unsubstantiated "fact." You may as well have said "This is clearly seen because of my imagination."



You only dig your own hole deeper. Yes, both men acted as representatives for "many." One lead to justification, one lead to condemnation. The difference is with Adam there was 1 sin to condemnation and in Christ there is justification for many sins.



I reject what you've said because it's unbiblical. You believe, contrary to scripture, that sin is passed from generation to generation all the way back to Adam and original sin. But Romans 5:12 clearly says that it is death that is passed, not sin. This is supported by Ezekiel 18.



The point, my friend, is that IF we all have a sin nature, and IF we all get that sin nature as an inheritance from Adam because sin (not death) is passed, then any covering for Adam's sin would effectively eliminate the sin that was passed, and that sin would cease to be passed because it would have been covered by the blood of Jesus. If Adam's sin were forgiven, then it could no longer be passed. We wouldn't inherit a sin nature (in that faulty point of view) because that sin would have been forgiven. You have - once again - effectively destroyed your entire theological position.

You can't say that Adam's representative sin is passed, and then say that if that representative sin were forgiven, that the redemption would not also be passed. If one is true, the other MUST be true. If Adam's representative sin is passed, then the forgiveness of that sin would also be passed. And if it is true that the forgiveness for Adam's sin is passed, then it destroys the idea that sin is passed, or that we inherit a sin nature from Adam because Adam's representative sin would have been forgiven.



If that's true (which is isn't), then Adam's sin would cease to be representative as well. Adam committed only 1 sin in his life - he ate the fruit. If this 1 sin was representative, then forgiveness for that 1 sin would also be representative. But Romans 5 says the free gift of grace is for many sins, not 1 sin.



The word MORAL does not appear in either of the passages you listed. Furthermore I see nothing about infants in either passage. You make this up as you go, don't you!

I do find it interesting, however, that 2 Corinthians 3 is all about the two covenants - faith and the law - and effect of righteousness on a person.



Romans 5 doesn't make that distinction. It says "death" it doesn't say "spiritual death". As a matter of fact, if you limit Romans 5 to spiritual death, you may undermine the very gospel itself.

Rom 5:6 For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.
7 For scarcely for a righteous man will one die: yet peradventure for a good man some would even dare to die.
8 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.​

If you believe this context refers only to Christ dying spiritually, then you and I may have far less common footing to stand on that I supposed. Do you believe that Christ's death and resurrection was only spiritual and that he didn't die physically? Do you believe he only spilled spiritual blood for us?




So you think that Adam died spiritually prior to being judged by God, prior to God pronouncing the curse? I wonder how he spoke with God in the garden if he was spiritually dead when God asked him where he was and why he was hiding.



All have sinned means each individual has committed his own sin. It doesn't mean that we all committed Adam's sin.



The onus is upon you to produce scripture to substantiate your claim that says that the sin nature is passed. Furthermore it is upon you to substantiate your implication that sin is passed through the father's genes.

Your responses are so rediculous that this post is not worth my time to respond to! Go back and reread my posts

 

[Gup20]

You better reread Romans 8:10 again! Are you really going to interpret this text to mean that Christ can be "in you" and yet your body is dead physically?????? If so then what is Christ "in" that is called "you"?

Um... yes that is how I interpret it because that is exactly what it says.

Rom 8:10 And if Christ [be] in you, the body [is] dead because of sin; but the Spirit [is] life because of righteousness.​

Christ is "in" our heart, our spirit.

Romans 7-8 gives us the reasoning:

Rom 7:18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing: for to will is present with me; but [how] to perform that which is good I find not.
19 For the good that I would I do not: but the evil which I would not, that I do.
20 Now if I do that I would not, it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.​

So here we see Paul says that in his flesh dwells no good thing. Since Christ is a good thing, I'm going to assume that Christ doesn't live in his flesh. Paul affirms however that the will to do good is in him, but just not in his flesh.

Paul describes this struggle between his flesh and his spirit. That his spirit wants him to do good, but his flesh does that which is not good. He says it isn't "him" who does it, but rather it is "sin in him".

Some might think this is the "devil made me do it" excuse. But it isn't. Paul isn't saying "it's not me, it's the devil." Paul is saying "It's not me, it's me." Paul is recognizing the duality that now exists within him. He continues on to describe this duality:

Rom 8:21 I find then a law, that, when I would do good, evil is present with me.
22 For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:
23 But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members.
24 O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?
25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.​

Paul describes a war within himself between good and evil... between sin and Christ. And the battleground is his mind. Notice when Paul says "it's not me, it's me". He identifies his "true" self as the person he is in the spirit, rather than the person he is in the flesh. Then he says "with his mind" he serves God and with his flesh he serves sin. He identifies himself as who he is in Christ. He sees that as his true self.

Rom 8:1 [There is] therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.​

Here Paul describes the liberty he has in Christ, being free from the law of sin and death because Christ lives within him. He has this liberty because he walks in the spirit, rather than the flesh. According to the previous verses, (as well as the verses to follow) he does this by setting his mind on the things of the spirit rather than the things of the flesh.

It also says God condemned sin to die with the flesh. Christ lives in his spirit, so his spirit is alive. But his body (his flesh) is still dead. God has banished sin and death from his spirit, and confined it in his flesh. He has done this so that the law (which says a sinner must die) can be fulfilled in us by the death of our flesh, but we can continue and remain alive with Christ because of the righteousness we've obtained by grace through faith.

Rom 8:5 For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.
6 For to be carnally minded [is] death; but to be spiritually minded [is] life and peace.
7 Because the carnal mind [is] enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.
8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.
9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
10 And if Christ [be] in you, the body [is] dead because of sin; but the Spirit [is] life because of righteousness.​

That is not what he is saying or what this text means. Paul has previously defined the body as the place of indwelling sin. Hence, the body is "dead" in the sense of under condemnation due to sin. The Spirit resides in the human spirit. Victory over indwelling sin is by the indwelling Spirit.

Do you not know that we must die to fulfill the law? Do you not know that we will have new, uncorrupted bodies in heaven?

2Cr 5:1 For we know that if our earthly house of [this] tabernacle were dissolved, we have a building of God, an house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens.
2 For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven:
3 If so be that being clothed we shall not be found naked.
4 For we that are in [this] tabernacle do groan, being burdened: not for that we would be unclothed, but clothed upon, that mortality might be swallowed up of life.
5 Now he that hath wrought us for the selfsame thing [is] God, who also hath given unto us the earnest of the Spirit.
6 Therefore [we are] always confident, knowing that, whilst we are at home in the body, we are absent from the Lord:
7 (For we walk by faith, not by sight​

As we can see from verse 6, the "home" or "house" or "tabernacle" that it speaks of is our human body. Looking at the context in verse 4 we see:

2Cr 4:16 Therefore we do not lose heart, but though our outer man is decaying, yet our inner man is being renewed day by day.
17 For momentary, light affliction is producing for us an eternal weight of glory far beyond all comparison,
18 while we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen; for the things which are seen are temporal, but the things which are not seen are eternal.​

 

[Gup20]

Your responses are so rediculous that this post is not worth my time to respond to! Go back and reread my posts

Your posts contain no scriptural basis and are merely your own opinions. Your unsubstantiated opinions have little to no truth. Why on earth would I want to reacquaint myself with your false beliefs? Do you have something to say that you can substantiate with scripture, or are you simply unable to back up what you say with God's Word?

You have commited to a Calvanistic worldview and so you aren't looking at this objectively. I don't know why you've committed to this view rather than to God and His scripture - but whatever the reason may be for you, Biblicist, there is no way you can rationalize Romans 5:12 to say sin is passed when it clearly says death is passed. This is why your attempts to do so have all met with failure.

 

[The Biblicist]

Um... yes that is how I interpret it because that is exactly what it says.

Rom 8:10 And if Christ [be] in you, the body [is] dead because of sin; but the Spirit [is] life because of righteousness.​

Christ is "in" our heart, our spirit.

Romans 7-8 gives us the reasoning:

Rom 7:18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing: for to will is present with me; but [how] to perform that which is good I find not.
19 For the good that I would I do not: but the evil which I would not, that I do.
20 Now if I do that I would not, it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.​

So here we see Paul says that in his flesh dwells no good thing. Since Christ is a good thing, I'm going to assume that Christ doesn't live in his flesh. Paul affirms however that the will to do good is in him, but just not in his flesh.

Paul describes this struggle between his flesh and his spirit. That his spirit wants him to do good, but his flesh does that which is not good. He says it isn't "him" who does it, but rather it is "sin in him".

Some might think this is the "devil made me do it" excuse. But it isn't. Paul isn't saying "it's not me, it's the devil." Paul is saying "It's not me, it's me." Paul is recognizing the duality that now exists within him. He continues on to describe this duality:

Rom 8:21 I find then a law, that, when I would do good, evil is present with me.
22 For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:
23 But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members.
24 O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?
25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.​

Paul describes a war within himself between good and evil... between sin and Christ. And the battleground is his mind. Notice when Paul says "it's not me, it's me". He identifies his "true" self as the person he is in the spirit, rather than the person he is in the flesh. Then he says "with his mind" he serves God and with his flesh he serves sin. He identifies himself as who he is in Christ. He sees that as his true self.

Rom 8:1 [There is] therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.
2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.​

Here Paul describes the liberty he has in Christ, being free from the law of sin and death because Christ lives within him. He has this liberty because he walks in the spirit, rather than the flesh. According to the previous verses, (as well as the verses to follow) he does this by setting his mind on the things of the spirit rather than the things of the flesh.

It also says God condemned sin to die with the flesh. Christ lives in his spirit, so his spirit is alive. But his body (his flesh) is still dead. God has banished sin and death from his spirit, and confined it in his flesh. He has done this so that the law (which says a sinner must die) can be fulfilled in us by the death of our flesh, but we can continue and remain alive with Christ because of the righteousness we've obtained by grace through faith.

Rom 8:5 For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.
6 For to be carnally minded [is] death; but to be spiritually minded [is] life and peace.
7 Because the carnal mind [is] enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.
8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.
9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
10 And if Christ [be] in you, the body [is] dead because of sin; but the Spirit [is] life because of righteousness.​

Yes, this is all true. So, you do not believe those who have the Spirit living in their heart have PHYSICAL dead bodies - meaning, their body is in the grave and they are in heaven??? So you don't believe the body is LITERALLY SEPARATED from the spirit as is the case of ALL who are PHYSICALLY DEAD????


Hence, your whole argument based on this text is MOOT! The body is only DEAD in the sense that indwelling sin rules over it.

 

[Gup20]

Yes, this is all true. So, you do not believe those who have the Spirit living in their heart have PHYSICAL dead bodies - meaning, their body is in the grave and they are in heaven??? So you don't believe the body is LITERALLY SEPARATED from the spirit as is the case of ALL who are PHYSICALLY DEAD????


Hence, your whole argument based on this text is MOOT! The body is only DEAD in the sense that indwelling sin rules over it.

2Cr 4:16 Therefore we do not lose heart, but though our outer man is decaying, yet our inner man is being renewed day by day.​

The scripture says that "dying you shall surly die." Meaning that physical death is a process of decay.

Gen 3:22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:​

This was after sin and after God cursed Adam & Eve and the whole earth. It shows the process of death had already begun.

 

[The Biblicist]

2Cr 4:16 Therefore we do not lose heart, but though our outer man is decaying, yet our inner man is being renewed day by day.​

The scripture says that "dying you shall surly die." Meaning that physical death is a process of decay.

Gen 3:22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:​

This was after sin and after God cursed Adam & Eve and the whole earth. It shows the process of death had already begun.

Romans 5:15 says "by one man's offence many BE DEAD"

The words "be dead" translate the Aorist indicative active and prove that spiritual death of the whole human race occurred when Adam sinned because the text plainly states "BY ONE MAN'S OFFENCE many DIED."

However, neither Adam PHYSICALLY died when he sinned NOR did the "many" PHYSICALLY die when he sinned!

Hence, Adam SPIRITUALLY DIED when he sinned and so did the "many" he acted as REPRESENTATIVE and which were IN him as the undivided WHOLE of human nature acted when he acted.

You may ignore this evidence, pervert it, cry about it but the fact is that "many DIED" BY ONE MAN'S OFFENCE rather than by THEIR OWN OFFENCES!

 

[Gup20]

Romans 5:15 says "by one man's offence many BE DEAD"

The words "be dead" translate the Aorist indicative active and prove that spiritual death of the whole human race occurred when Adam sinned because the text plainly states "BY ONE MAN'S OFFENCE many DIED."

However, neither Adam PHYSICALLY died when he sinned NOR did the "many" PHYSICALLY die when he sinned!

Hence, Adam SPIRITUALLY DIED when he sinned and so did the "many" he acted as REPRESENTATIVE and which were IN him as the undivided WHOLE of human nature acted when he acted.

You may ignore this evidence, pervert it, cry about it but the fact is that "many DIED" BY ONE MAN'S OFFENCE rather than by THEIR OWN OFFENCES!

Wishing it to be true doesn't make it true.

The word for "be dead" in Romans 5:15 is apothnēskō. This Greek word denotes natural death, not spiritual death. If they wanted to use a word that can mean spiritually dead he would have used the Greek word nekros.

 

[The Biblicist]

Wishing it to be true doesn't make it true.

The word for "be dead" in Romans 5:15 is apothnēskō. This Greek word denotes natural death, not spiritual death. If they wanted to use a word that can mean spiritually dead he would have used the Greek word nekros.

The Greek term apothnesko can be and is used for those who are PHYSICALLY ALIVE but only JUDICIALLY [death by imputation] dead and that is precisely how Paul uses in Romans 5:15 and the proof is the following uses by Paul.

Ro 6:2 God forbid. How shall we, that are dead [apothenesko] to sin, live any longer therein? [judicial death by imputation]

Ro 6:4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead [nekro] by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life. [physical death of Christ NOT SPIRITUAL DEATH]

Ro 6:7 For he that is dead [apothenesko] is freed from sin. [judicial death by imputation]

Ro 6:11 Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead [apothenesko] indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord. [judicial death by imputation]


Adam was our LEGAL representative when he sinned. When he sinned we sinned by imputation and died by imputation. Hence, by one man's offence many were made sinners (by legal imputation). Just as they were "condemned" by legal imputation. That is the REPRESENTATIVE capacity.

It is LEGAL sin and LEGAL death that brings LEGAL condemnation. Those whom the Law LEGALLY REGARDS AS CONDEMNED AS SINNERS ARE LEGALLY DEAD in the sight of God - that is spiritual death and it is that LEGAL STATUS before the Law of God that is "passed" unto all men for all have sinned when Adam sinned.

Legal condemnation by the law SEPARATES God from man and that is the definition of SPIRITUAL DEATH.