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If there is anyone that believes this, how do you reconcile the contradiction?
You make this statement in the present tense "IS"! Therefore, it is false!
If you had made it in the past tense while Christ lived on earth it would be correct.
The name "Jesus" was given to name the human baby conceived by the Holy Spirit in Mary. Jesus as a man grew in knowledge and thus was not omniscient. Jesus as a man confessed that He did not know the precise hour and day of his own coming.
However, Jesus was also God in the flesh or "the God with us" - Immanuel and as Immanuel he was also at the same time in heaven (Jn. 3:13) because He was omnipresent, omnipotent and omniscient! The humanity of Christ could not be diety without ceasing to be humanity and vice versa. Thus humanity has imposed limitations in order to be humanity.
The glorified Christ is still man and God. The Glorified Christ still has a human body that is not omnipresent but the human spirit and soul of Christ is no longer limited by finite understanding and knowledge. Because those mental limitations were imposed upon him while in an unglorified state.
If there is anyone that believes this, how do you reconcile the contradiction?
The Biblicist,
re: "If you had made it in the past tense while Christ lived on earth it would be correct.
So you're saying that it would be correct if the statement had said: "God was omniscient, Jesus was God, but Jesus was not omniscient"?
The Biblicist,
re: ""God is omniscient, Jesus is God but Jesus was not omniscient but now is omniscient"
So you’re saying that the Messiah was not God when He was on earth?