So you say, but you continually condemn your own argument because you cannot say "The Law made it possible for man to obtain eternal life."
And...you cannot negate the truths spoken of that tell us why man could not obtain eternal life...because of himself...not the law.
Paul explains exactly why:
Romans 7
King James Version (KJV)
5For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death.
As expressed just before this, man was, like a woman to her husband, in bondage to the law. As also pointed out before, Paul states explicitly that he was a sinner, and except the showed him his sin...he would have been ignorant of his offense.
Here, it is clear that the declaration of the Law was condemnation...only.
You repeatedly say that "theoretically" the law could give eternal life. Sure it could, if man were able to perform and fulfill the law, but due to the fact that he is born into the world in a body that will not allow that, the best the law could do for him was to show him his sin and his need for redemption.
6But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.
The First Covenant, if it were not for the fact of man's condition, would have certainly brought eternal life. The Lord could say, "Do this and you will live," just as I can say, "Make lots of money and you will be rich." But the many scriptures that state that man is not capable of keeping the law, because of the state he is born in, which is an unredeemed body which has only the potential for being unjust because he is unjust...cannot be denied.
Overlooked, swept under the rug, reconciled to fit a particular doctrine, sure. But the many verse that have been posted to show this condition of man...will stand forever. And their meaning will not change, no matter how much it disagrees with our own doctrine.
He did not. Where in Romans 7:10 is the word eternal?
The First Covenant (and by now I realize you do not understand what I am talking about, and a look at this in scripture would help, I believe) dealt with the temporal life of Israel. Clear it is that when man failed to keep the laws, they were put to a physical death. Would you deny that?
More importantly, you overlook the fact that no matter the importance of the Levitical Economy in the matter of forgiveness for sins...not the priests, nor the High Priest are ever ascribed the power to forgive sins on an eternal basis.
If you would go on to perfection, as the writer of Hebrews exhorts his brethren, you would see this is clearly taught.
"The blood of bulls and goats...could not take away sins."
So do not give an eternal application to something that was clearly temporal, temporary, and...inneffective to deal with man's sin.
Again, you cannot say it plainly: Just go ahead and say plainly what you hint at to "prove" this doctrine: that the Law could give eternal life to man.
Tell me how God has incorrectly found the greatest righteousnesses of man to be as filthy rags?
How can the simple, basic bible teaching concerning man's condition be misunderstood like this? The answer is clear: It is a works-based, Judaistic faith which is embraced. The serious nature of demeaning the work of Chirist and the absolute universal need for all men cannot be stressed enough.
If you keep intact all that Paul teaches concerning the law, which, by the way, is a reference to not just the Ten Commandments, but everything which this Covenant entailed, then you would see why the law has come to an end.
Why are we "dead to the Law?" Because we have been imputed with a righteousness which was impossible to attain through the law due to the flesh.
And that flesh was the very flesh man was born in.
Hence, man is born in sin, condemned and unable to accomplish righeousness that will, according to God, exceed the status of filthy rags.
And here, again, God's covenantal relationship with Israel is overlooked.
You really need to understand the New Testament, meaning...the New Covenant, in order to full understand the Old.
And this speaks of the promises of God toward Israel. Gentiles have been grafted in, but lest it be thought that God has abandoned His covenantal promises the point is made that He has not, and that there are still those of Israel that remain faithful. They have not been cast out and replaced or abandoned.
God will fulfill His promises to Israel, and one day they will also partake of the promises of the New Covenant.
Keep in mind that as illustrated in the verses prior to this, God has reserved a remnant, and, do not miss this...
Romans 11
King James Version (KJV)
5Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.
...not a remnant according to works.
If you go on you will find your answer.
And here is a clear statement that should also give insight to the failure of Israel:
Romans 10
1Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might be saved.
2For I bear them record that they have a zeal of God, but not according to knowledge.
3For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God.
That is why they could not be saved. What is God's answer?
4For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.
5For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.
6But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down from above
See the contrast between the two righteousnesses? That of the law, and that which is found in faith in Christ.
God bless.
