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Job's Harmatiology

Winman

Active Member
Oh really?

Man that is born of a woman is of few days, and full of trouble. -Job 14:1

This verses introduces his subject and verse 4 explains why man "born of woman is a few days, and full of trouble."




Nope! I am not moving from the book of Job. If Job proves your theory wrong and IT MOST CERTAINLY DOES, why should I play the JUMPING game with you all over the Bible when you can't answer Job?????

What are you, a child? If you make the claim that the sin nature is passed by the father only, you should provide scriptural proof for this.

I don't think you can.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
What are you, a child? .

All three of you fellas are real good at name calling and degrading those you can't answer their objections! However, you are not very good exegetes and that is pretty obvious.

You need to answer the objections I have repeatedly posted. I will not play your JUMPING and PITTING game until you answer the objections!
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Job 14:1 ¶ Man that is born of a woman is of few days, and full of trouble..... 4 Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? not one. 5 Seeing his days are determined, the number of his months are with thee, thou hast appointed his bounds that he cannot pass;

Job 15:14 What is man, that he should be clean? and he which is born of a woman, that he should be righteous?
15 Behold, he putteth no trust in his saints; yea, the heavens are not clean in his sight.

Job. 25:4 How then can man be justified with God? or how can he be clean that is born of a woman?



Let us examine how our heretical friends attempt to dispose of the above texts that clearly demand that babies come into this world as sinful in nature - unclean.


Their arguments go like this:

1. Most of these texts are by Job's friends who were rebuked by God.

2. This is poetic language and cannot be taken literally

3. God never confirmed these ideas

4. If they cannot overthrow Job by the above arguments they simply go to the next step which is to PIT other scriptures against Job.



Our Response to their arguments

1. All three speakers agree with each other. The first comes from Job (Jb 14:1,4) and neither Job or God condemned these specific statements or their theological content. Job is clearly speaking of Child birth (Job 14:1) in Job 14:4 as he goes right on to talk about the extent of life (v. 5) from child birth in verse 4. The same position is confirmed by David (Psa. 51; 58).

2. The terms "clean" and "unclean" are clearly terms that reflect the ceremonial laws later in Moses. However, these writers clearly interpret these terms to mean moral righteousness and unrighteousness:

a. Job 25:4 uses "clean" synonymous with "justified"
b. Job 15:14 uses "clean" synonymous with "righteous" which in turn confirms the definition in Job 25:4 "justified"
c. Job 14:4 uses "clean" and "unclean" in the same moral sense as Job 11:4 previously define the term "clean" to mean "pure" morally.

3. Elihu whom God never rebuked but rather took up where Elihu left off makes it clear that to be "clean" means to be without transgression or iniquity.

Job 33:9 I am clean without transgression, I am innocent; neither is there iniquity in me.

Furthermore, Elihu claimed to speak on God's behalf and God never rebuked Elihu:

Suffer me a little, and I will shew thee that I have yet to speak on God’s behalf. - Job 36:2

Job 42:7 ¶ And it was so, that after the LORD had spoken these words unto Job, the LORD said to Eliphaz the Temanite, My wrath is kindled against thee, and against thy two friends: for ye have not spoken of me the thing that is right, as my servant Job hath.


4. Pitting other scriptures against Job demonstrates they cannot overthrow the context of Job and that the scriptures they use to PIT against Job are based upon the same mishandling of context as their arguments were against Job. God is not the author of confusion but the practice of PITTING scripture against scripture assumes contradiction in scriptures.


CONCLUSION: All the arguments by our heretical friends are completely baseless. The book of Job clearly and explicitly teaches that infants come into this world with a sinful ("unclean") nature.

That is a RARE application not the NORMAL meaning and not how it is used in the book of Job. The NORMAL meaning has to do with moral and ethical purity.

The Bottom line is how is it used in the Book of Job.

1. The Jewish translators of the Septuigent use the same Greek term "katharos" for every passage I quoted in Job thus making no such distinction.

2. The writer of Job uses it consistently for MORAL and ETHNICAL purity

Job 4:17 Shall mortal man be more just than God? shall a man be more pure [Tahowr] than his maker?

Job 17:9 The righteous also shall hold on his way, and he that hath clean [Tehore] hands shall be stronger and stronger.

Job 37:21 And now men see not the bright light which is in the clouds: but the wind passeth, and cleanseth [tawher] them.


3. The term "Tahowr" is defined by using it in contrast to "unclean" [Tamay] which is consistently used for ceremonial defilement and impurity.


4. The Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament by Harris, Archer and Walkte says concerning the verb and its forms:

"The verb occurs ninety-four times in the Qal, Piel, Pual, and Hithpael stems. It is used almost exclusively of ritual or moral purity.....All told taher and its derivitives occur 204 times. In the great majority of cases they appear in the priestly literature; about fourty-four percent in Lev. and Num. about sixth percent in Es...about fourteen percent in Chr. and Ezek....The LXX general translates taher and its derivatives by katharizo, karthos, katharismos, etc. to 'purify,' 'pure,' 'purity.'" - p. 792


So your objections are false!


Here is my position. You have not provided ANY VALID objections to overthrow the evidences above and until you can I AM NOT MOVING.
 

Jerry Shugart

New Member
Again here is the evidence!
That is not evidence that supports your assertion that "the sin nature passes down through the woman to the child but through the father to the child."

If the lord Jesus thought that a little child was born dead spiritually and unclean He certainly would not have said the following about them:

"Then were there brought unto him little children, that he should put his hands on them, and pray: and the disciples rebuked them. But Jesus said, Suffer little children, and forbid them not, to come unto me: for of such is the kingdom of heaven" (Mt.19:13-14).

If we are to believe your ridiculous ideas then we must throw our reason to the wind and believe that the Lord Jesus would compare these littele children to the Kingdom of heaven" even though, according to you, they are "children of wrath" and their father is the devil!

John the Baptist was not dead in sin while in his mother's womb:

"For he will be great in the sight of the Lord. He is never to take wine or other fermented drink, and he will be filled with the Holy Spirit even from birth" (Lk. 1:15).

Even A.W. Pink, a well known Calvinist writer of the twentieth century, wrote that "there can be no point of contact between God and His Christ with a sinful man until he is regenerated. There can be no lawful union between two parties who have nothing vital in common. A superior and an inferior nature may be united together, but never contrary natures" (A.W. Pink, Regeneration or the New Birth, Chapter 1).

Of course Pink is correct as witnessed by the following words of the Apostle Paul:

"For what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? And what communion hath light with darkness?"
(2 Cor.6:14).

How was it possible for the Holy Spirit to fill John the Baptist if he was dead and defiled as a result of Adam's sin?
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
That is not evidence that supports your assertion that "the sin nature passes down through the woman to the child but through the father to the child."

It is evidence that all NATURAL BORN human beings are born sinners - unclean!

It is evidence that SUPPORTS the position that by "one MAN...death passed" not by "WOMEN...death passed".

It is evidence that SUPPORTS that such death was not "PASSED" by "man" to Christ since he was virign born and the "seed of the woman."

Until this SUPPORTIVE evidence an be answered I AM NOT MOVING!
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Job 14:1 ¶ Man that is born of a woman is of few days, and full of trouble..... 4 Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? not one. 5 Seeing his days are determined, the number of his months are with thee, thou hast appointed his bounds that he cannot pass;

Job 15:14 What is man, that he should be clean? and he which is born of a woman, that he should be righteous?
15 Behold, he putteth no trust in his saints; yea, the heavens are not clean in his sight.

Job. 25:4 How then can man be justified with God? or how can he be clean that is born of a woman?



Let us examine how our heretical friends attempt to dispose of the above texts that clearly demand that babies come into this world as sinful in nature - unclean.


Their arguments go like this:

1. Most of these texts are by Job's friends who were rebuked by God.

2. This is poetic language and cannot be taken literally

3. God never confirmed these ideas

4. If they cannot overthrow Job by the above arguments they simply go to the next step which is to PIT other scriptures against Job.



Our Response to their arguments

1. All three speakers agree with each other. The first comes from Job (Jb 14:1,4) and neither Job or God condemned these specific statements or their theological content. Job is clearly speaking of Child birth (Job 14:1) in Job 14:4 as he goes right on to talk about the extent of life (v. 5) from child birth in verse 4. The same position is confirmed by David (Psa. 51; 58).

2. The terms "clean" and "unclean" are clearly terms that reflect the ceremonial laws later in Moses. However, these writers clearly interpret these terms to mean moral righteousness and unrighteousness:

a. Job 25:4 uses "clean" synonymous with "justified"
b. Job 15:14 uses "clean" synonymous with "righteous" which in turn confirms the definition in Job 25:4 "justified"
c. Job 14:4 uses "clean" and "unclean" in the same moral sense as Job 11:4 previously define the term "clean" to mean "pure" morally.

3. Elihu whom God never rebuked but rather took up where Elihu left off makes it clear that to be "clean" means to be without transgression or iniquity.

Job 33:9 I am clean without transgression, I am innocent; neither is there iniquity in me.

Furthermore, Elihu claimed to speak on God's behalf and God never rebuked Elihu:

Suffer me a little, and I will shew thee that I have yet to speak on God’s behalf. - Job 36:2

Job 42:7 ¶ And it was so, that after the LORD had spoken these words unto Job, the LORD said to Eliphaz the Temanite, My wrath is kindled against thee, and against thy two friends: for ye have not spoken of me the thing that is right, as my servant Job hath.


4. Pitting other scriptures against Job demonstrates they cannot overthrow the context of Job and that the scriptures they use to PIT against Job are based upon the same mishandling of context as their arguments were against Job. God is not the author of confusion but the practice of PITTING scripture against scripture assumes contradiction in scriptures.


CONCLUSION: All the arguments by our heretical friends are completely baseless. The book of Job clearly and explicitly teaches that infants come into this world with a sinful ("unclean") nature.



That is a RARE application not the NORMAL meaning and not how it is used in the book of Job. The NORMAL meaning has to do with moral and ethical purity.

The Bottom line is how is it used in the Book of Job.

1. The Jewish translators of the Septuigent use the same Greek term "katharos" for every passage I quoted in Job thus making no such distinction.

2. The writer of Job uses it consistently for MORAL and ETHNICAL purity

Job 4:17 Shall mortal man be more just than God? shall a man be more pure [Tahowr] than his maker?

Job 17:9 The righteous also shall hold on his way, and he that hath clean [Tehore] hands shall be stronger and stronger.

Job 37:21 And now men see not the bright light which is in the clouds: but the wind passeth, and cleanseth [tawher] them.


3. The term "Tahowr" is defined by using it in contrast to "unclean" [Tamay] which is consistently used for ceremonial defilement and impurity.


4. The Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament by Harris, Archer and Walkte says concerning the verb and its forms:

"The verb occurs ninety-four times in the Qal, Piel, Pual, and Hithpael stems. It is used almost exclusively of ritual or moral purity.....All told taher and its derivitives occur 204 times. In the great majority of cases they appear in the priestly literature; about fourty-four percent in Lev. and Num. about sixth percent in Es...about fourteen percent in Chr. and Ezek....The LXX general translates taher and its derivatives by katharizo, karthos, katharismos, etc. to 'purify,' 'pure,' 'purity.'" - p. 792


So your objections are false!

Again, the evidence!
 

Jerry Shugart

New Member
It is evidence that SUPPORTS the position that by "one MAN...death passed" not by "WOMEN...death passed".
We have been over this already and Paul makes it plain that death assed to all men because all have sinned:

"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned" (Ro.5:12).

Since what Paul says does not match your preconceived ideas you just edit what he wrote by adding the following words in "bold":

"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned IN CHRIST.

Then you put down your editing pencil in self satisfaction, all the while under the delusion that your ideas actually match what Paul wrote!
 

Darrell C

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
What are you, a child? If you make the claim that the sin nature is passed by the father only, you should provide scriptural proof for this.

I don't think you can.

Heloo Winman, getting ready to sign off, but just wanted to throw this out for consideration:

When a man leaves father and mother and clings to his wife, the twain become one, right?

All are the result of this, including Mary. She is the result of a physical union between her father and mother, and is the "one" which resulted from the twain.

In the case of Christ's birth, He is not the result of the twain becoming one, but rather, is the result of God's creating His body in her womb.

This makes it possible for Christ to have a human nature while still retaining His divine nature. He was not the result of natural procreation.

Because of this, it can be said:


Hebrews 7

26For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;


"Separate from sinners."

He is contrasted with the rest of humanity, by us, I am sure you would agree, as well as by the record of scripture.


27Who needeth not daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifice, first for his own sins, and then for the people's: for this he did once, when he offered up himself.

All previous High Priests had to offer up sacrifice for themselves, then, for the people. Could we assume that there were among the Gentiles those that did not need to offer up sacrifice?

28For the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity; but the word of the oath, which was since the law, maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore.


The law set as rulers, or gave the rule, to men that were weak (most probably due to the fact they were sinners and needed to offer up sacrifice for themselves as well), but the word of the oath has made perfect forever the Son.

In many places we see Christ set apart from humanity, though He could, being made of a woman, die in the place of man.

What is that one thing that distinguishes man from every other man that has lived?

God bless.
 

Winman

Active Member
The problem with this theory is that it makes Jesus unlike us, which contradicts scripture. Jesus could only sympathize with us because he knew what it was like to battle and resist temptation.

This temptation that he had to "suffer" is the evidence that he inherited his flesh and the ability to be tempted from Mary. God cannot be tempted, and he cannot suffer being tempted. Jesus had to get this ability somewhere, so it is obvious he inherited it from his mother.

Folks often equate temptation to being the sin nature. It is not sin to be tempted. It is when we willingly obey temptation and act on it when we sin. I will admit it is difficult to distinguish where temptation ends, and sin begins in some situations.

The Holy Spirit actually drove Jesus into the wilderness to be tempted and prove his obedience. He was 40 days without food. Folks have been known to catch and eat live rats when they are starving like this, even commit cannibalism. The devil knew Jesus was starving, this is why he tempted him to turn the stone to bread. Jesus must have been very tempted to follow through on this, but quickly set his mind on obeying the will of his Father.

If Jesus had some super nature at this time, would it have tempted him? No, and it would have been no real test of faith and obedience.

The problem is folks simply accept the doctrine of Original Sin because it is what the church has always taught. That is no proof that it is valid, the church has a history of false doctrine over long periods such as baptismal regeneration, which is STILL held by many. So orthodoxy is no proof.

Folks come up with ridiculous, even superstitious theories of why Jesus didn't inherit a sin nature, like Immaculate Conception or that virgins do not transfer sin. The real answer is that God made man upright (Ecc 7:29).
 
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Mandym: By the use of the word "heretics" are you saying they are lost ( as in not born again) or just wrong on this particular doctrine?


HP: And then to think that Biblicist has the gall to label the ones he calls heretics and outside of the faith, as 'name callers." Go figure. Biblicist has not only called my salvation into question but stated that arguments I have posted in rebuttal of his positions are 'demonic.'

You can certainly tell when one is running short on substance.:thumbsup:

The moderators have increased the level of attacks three fold by their refusal to enforce the rules against those acting like men of the baser sorts carrying out these personal attacks. Why they have chosen to present themselves to the world as hypocrites is beyond me.

Chickens have a habit of coming home to roost...... all in good time.
 
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The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
By the use of the word "heretics" are you saying they are lost ( as in not born again) or just wrong on this particular doctrine?

From my observation they preach "another gospel" as they reject justification by grace alone through faith alone in Christ alone without works. What does Paul say about those who preach "another gospel" (Gal. 1:8-9)?
 

Jerry Shugart

New Member
And then to think that Biblicist has the gall to label the ones he calls heretics and outside of the faith, as 'name callers." Go figure. Biblicist has not only called my salvation into question but stated that arguments I have posted in rebuttal of his positions are 'demonic.'

The Biblicist not only insults those who do not agree with his ideas but he also questions their honesty, as witnessed what he wrote to you on another thread earlier:
Ruize was being tactful and kind. I won't be so tactful and kind. You and Jerry are not interested in truth at all. You are interested in defending your false doctrine no matter what evidence is placed before you.

Your false doctrine has been thoroughly disproven over and over again but you simply repeat the same lies, the same perverted interpretations and you will continue to do so. Hence, Paul's words apply to both of you as far as I am concerned- "He that is ignorant let him be ignorant." I have got better things to do then continue on this merry go round of repetitious nonsense.
Too bad that he continues to argue with us because I thought he really meant what he said here:
I have got better things to do then continue on this merry go round of repetitious nonsense.
"For every tree is known by his own fruit. For of thorns men do not gather figs, nor of a bramble bush gather they grapes" (Lk.6:44).
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Job 14:1 ¶ Man that is born of a woman is of few days, and full of trouble..... 4 Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? not one. 5 Seeing his days are determined, the number of his months are with thee, thou hast appointed his bounds that he cannot pass;

Job 15:14 What is man, that he should be clean? and he which is born of a woman, that he should be righteous?
15 Behold, he putteth no trust in his saints; yea, the heavens are not clean in his sight.

Job. 25:4 How then can man be justified with God? or how can he be clean that is born of a woman?



Let us examine how our heretical friends attempt to dispose of the above texts that clearly demand that babies come into this world as sinful in nature - unclean.


Their arguments go like this:

1. Most of these texts are by Job's friends who were rebuked by God.

2. This is poetic language and cannot be taken literally

3. God never confirmed these ideas

4. If they cannot overthrow Job by the above arguments they simply go to the next step which is to PIT other scriptures against Job.



Our Response to their arguments

1. All three speakers agree with each other. The first comes from Job (Jb 14:1,4) and neither Job or God condemned these specific statements or their theological content. Job is clearly speaking of Child birth (Job 14:1) in Job 14:4 as he goes right on to talk about the extent of life (v. 5) from child birth in verse 4. The same position is confirmed by David (Psa. 51; 58).

2. The terms "clean" and "unclean" are clearly terms that reflect the ceremonial laws later in Moses. However, these writers clearly interpret these terms to mean moral righteousness and unrighteousness:

a. Job 25:4 uses "clean" synonymous with "justified"
b. Job 15:14 uses "clean" synonymous with "righteous" which in turn confirms the definition in Job 25:4 "justified"
c. Job 14:4 uses "clean" and "unclean" in the same moral sense as Job 11:4 previously define the term "clean" to mean "pure" morally.

3. Elihu whom God never rebuked but rather took up where Elihu left off makes it clear that to be "clean" means to be without transgression or iniquity.

Job 33:9 I am clean without transgression, I am innocent; neither is there iniquity in me.

Furthermore, Elihu claimed to speak on God's behalf and God never rebuked Elihu:

Suffer me a little, and I will shew thee that I have yet to speak on God’s behalf. - Job 36:2

Job 42:7 ¶ And it was so, that after the LORD had spoken these words unto Job, the LORD said to Eliphaz the Temanite, My wrath is kindled against thee, and against thy two friends: for ye have not spoken of me the thing that is right, as my servant Job hath.


4. Pitting other scriptures against Job demonstrates they cannot overthrow the context of Job and that the scriptures they use to PIT against Job are based upon the same mishandling of context as their arguments were against Job. God is not the author of confusion but the practice of PITTING scripture against scripture assumes contradiction in scriptures.


CONCLUSION: All the arguments by our heretical friends are completely baseless. The book of Job clearly and explicitly teaches that infants come into this world with a sinful ("unclean") nature.

Again, here is the irrefutable evidence!
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Biblicist, don't you think quoting your own post over and over again a wee tad compulsive and obsessive?

It does not help your cause. And responding to yourself is akin to talking to one's self.

Here is how I see it! I can play your silly game of JUMP and PIT or I can stand on solid ground that neither you or your friends can overthrow.

If we go to David (Psa. 51 & 58) we go round and round. If we go to Romans 5:12-19 we go round and round. If we go to Hebrews 2:17 we go round and round.

However, that merry go round stops in Job because you cannot honestly deal with the evidence, and the evidence proves that Job and his friends all believed in one accord that infants come into the world with a sinful nature.

So, I guess I will just keep on repeating it because you fella's can't answer it with any rational and sensible responses. So why move, when it is solid?

If Job is solid, and it is, then that proves your intepretations of Psalm 51 and 58; Romans 5 and Hebrew 2:17 are just as flimsy and wrong because God is not the Author of Confusion.
 
Biblicist: However, that merry go round stops in Job because you cannot honestly deal with the evidence, and the evidence proves that Job and his friends all believed in one accord that infants come into the world with a sinful nature.

HP: You live in a fairytale world to think for a minute that you have proved your position. Proving something to your own mind does not necessitate it as being the truth nor does it prove you have made your Augustinian case with anyone else other than yourself. Oh well. Upward and onward.
 
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Winman

Active Member
Here is how I see it! I can play your silly game of JUMP and PIT or I can stand on solid ground that neither you or your friends can overthrow.

If we go to David (Psa. 51 & 58) we go round and round. If we go to Romans 5:12-19 we go round and round. If we go to Hebrews 2:17 we go round and round.

However, that merry go round stops in Job because you cannot honestly deal with the evidence, and the evidence proves that Job and his friends all believed in one accord that infants come into the world with a sinful nature.

So, I guess I will just keep on repeating it because you fella's can't answer it with any rational and sensible responses. So why move, when it is solid?

If Job is solid, and it is, then that proves your intepretations of Psalm 51 and 58; Romans 5 and Hebrew 2:17 are just as flimsy and wrong because God is not the Author of Confusion.

Biblicist, you simply pull scripture out of context to support your doctrine.

If the verses you showed from Job (and Psa 51:5) support original sin, then they all support that the sin nature is passed through the woman. Do you think the Holy Spirit would make such a mistake?

You will take Psa 58:3 as literal, and believe newborn babies can speak and tell lies (both of which are impossible), but when Job asks how anyone born of a woman can be clean, then all of a sudden it is not literal, it says woman, but it really means man.

It's not very convenient to you that Jesus was born of a woman is it ?

But when I ask you to show any verse that says sin is passed by the father, you refuse. Fact is, you can't.

The only thing you have proved is that you will wrest scripture to fit your presuppositions.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Biblicist, you simply pull scripture out of context to support your doctrine.

A charge you have not been able to demonstrate! In fact, I have proven that it is you and your friends who have misinterpreted terms, context and teaching in the book of Job. Just look at the past posts!

If the verses you showed from Job (and Psa 51:5) support original sin, then they all support that the sin nature is passed through the woman. Do you think the Holy Spirit would make such a mistake?

There is a difference between the expression "born of woman" which every man without exception is "born of woman" and the expression "the seed of the woman" which none but Mary fulfilled. Here lies your error, a failure to distinguish between two different phrases with two different applications. So it is not the Holy Spirit that made a mistake but it is you.

You will take Psa 58:3 as literal, and believe newborn babies can speak and tell lies (both of which are impossible),

Babies come from the womb as liars and speak lies. Their speech is not English or French but what every mother understands to be strong complaints when they don't get their way or the attention they want. They very quickly LIE by the fact they scream as though something is wrong simply because they know they will get attention that way - that is deception.

but when Job asks how anyone born of a woman can be clean, then all of a sudden it is not literal, it says woman, but it really means man.

Job 14:1 makes an assertion that man born of woman is in few days full of trouble due to his own sinful nature (v. 4). That is his point! He is not talking about his mother but the very nature of the child which is prone to trouble because the child is born by nature a sinner.

It's not very convenient to you that Jesus was born of a woman is it ?

Why do you refuse to acknowledge the significance of the virign birth as a fundemental difference between Christ and all other human beings??? Why do you fail to see the significance of the phrase "the seed of the woman" when it is the "seed of the man" that impregnates! Only because you refuse to acknowledge these stark contrasts in the birth of Christ do you need to read into Hebrews 2:17 what it does not say!

But when I ask you to show any verse that says sin is passed by the father, you refuse. Fact is, you can't.

"the seed of the woman" in regard to Christ is the answer but you can't see it! All other human beings are impregnated by the "seed of the man" but it is the "seed of the woman" impregnated by the Holy Spirit. Very simple. Very clear and yet you simply refuse to acknowledge the obvious!

I will stay in Job because it proves all your presuppositions and forced interpretations of Psalm 51, 58; Romans 5:12-15 and Hebrew 2:17 are simply and factually wrong!
 
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