It is human wisdom that calls the first-born child to have inheritance rights, but God’s ways are not are ways. Esau was first-born yet God chose Jacob. God has many times not chosen the first-born child. It is about our hearts. God knows our hearts before we were even born.
Romans 9:12 not by works but by him who calls--she was told, "The older will serve the younger."
In the Old Testament, a person could sin and then give a sin offering, and then show that he worked at having forgiveness. However, God did not like it when the people would sin, then give a sin offering, but not really be sorry for their sins. God knew Esau would for a single meal sell his inheritance rights as the oldest son.
In addition, none of the scriptures you post proves Calvinism.
As usual you are completely incapable of objectively dealing with the Biblical text. Romans 9:11 repudiates the idea that God chose Jacob due to looking ahead to see what either would do good or bad. This text clearly and decisively teaches unconditional election, or election not based upon foresight of future actions by either but rather according to God's purpose before they were ever born. That is what the text literally and actually says and you can live in denial all you want but it will not change what the text literally says. You can call people names and throw labels all day long but the text still says what it says regardless of how you attempt to deny it, pervert it or change the subject:
11 (For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth
1. God's choice was not based upon what happened at birth -"not yet born"
2. God's choice was not based upon what happened AFTER birth - "neither having done any good or evil....not of works"
3. God's choice was based strictly upon His "purpose...according to election"
Those three facts will never change regardless how much you hate those facts and regardless how much you will deny those facts. And neither will the following facts:
15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.
16 So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.
18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
If I paraphrased these same verses and did not quote them directly you would call me a Calvinist. Therefore Paul must have been a Calvinist.
Here is a test I doubt you will ever try but nevertheless I will challenge you to do it.
Paul is responding rhetorically to an imaginary objector in Romans 9 and that imaginary objector can be seen in the following verses:
"14 ¶ What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God?"
19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
Paul responds to this imaginary objector each time.
Here is the test. Does your view of election fit the objections of the imaginary objector OR does it fit the responses by Paul to this imaginary objector?
For example, When Paul says that God chose Jacob over Esau before he was even born and not according to any forseen distinctions that would make Jacob a better choice over Esau but God loved Esau and hated Jacob, would your view of election make you respond that if that is so then "there is unrighteousnes with God"?
Would your view of election cause you to respond as Paul did to that charge that God can have mercy on whom he pleases and harden who He pleases and so it is not him that willeth or him that runneth but it is God's choice to have mercy upon whom He pleases?
15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.
16 So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.
18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
Would your view of election make you respond to the above statment by Paul, -
19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?" If it is not of him that willeth but God's choice then how can God find fault with man because no man can overthrow God's will! Would such a response be characteristic of your view of election???? This is the objector's view to Paul's view of election!!!
Would your view of election cause you to respond to this objection in verse 19 as Paul did in verses 20-24?????
20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: {fitted: or, made up}
23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,
24 Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?
Would your view of election cause you to respond this way? Would you call a person who responded this way a "Calvinist"?
Does your view of election make your respond as the objector did or as Paul did?
If I simply paraphrased Paul's response to this imaginary objector would you call me a "Calvinist"??? Or would you respond like Paul to these objections?????
Are you brave enough to take this simple test?