First of all, you don't know what my conclusion is. Secondly, we are not dealing with that here; we are dealing with the correct meaning of a passage of scripture. For all the reasons I mentioned, it means one thing and one thing only; that's what the scripture explicitly states, and that's what the early church believed and taught. Period.
Your sources are UNINSPIRED just like you! You have stated your OPINION. You have attempted to make your argument by the context - commendable as far as that goes. However, your argument is irrational.
1. Why would one select limited group in hell be the object of Christ's preaching in hell and not ALL in hell.
2. This particular group had the gospel preached to them while they were living on earth before the flood because they heard Noah "a preacher of righteousness" in whom was "the Spirit of Christ" preaching to them the gospel defined in Acts 10:43/Heb. 4:2.
3. The language can be properly interpreted to mean only that they are NOW in hell due to just condemnation by the flood and hearing the gospel preached by Christ through Noah.