Mat_24:22 And if those days had not been cut short, no human being would be saved. But for the sake of the elect those days will be cut short.
Mat_24:24 For false christs and false prophets will arise and perform great signs and wonders, so as to lead astray, if possible, even the elect.
Mat_24:31 And he will send out his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
Mar_13:20 And if the Lord had not cut short the days, no human being would be saved. But for the sake of the elect, whom he chose, he shortened the days.
Mar_13:22 For false christs and false prophets will arise and perform signs and wonders, to lead astray, if possible, the elect.
In the above verses it is clear that Jesus is speaking of those who are already born again.
Joh_3:16 "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.
Joh_3:17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him.
Joh_6:33 For the bread of God is he who comes down from heaven and gives life to the world."
Joh_6:51 I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. And the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh."
The above verses shows Jesus is speaking of people who are not yet born again.
So why the difference in the two words? If Jesus in the second set of verses is speaking of the elect why did He not use that word like He did in the previous verses?
It is clear to me that the use of the word "world" contextually means Jesus is speaking of more than just the "elect".
Please withhold rude and accusing remarks in this thread.
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