Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
progressive revelation is that God in the Bible has granted out more and more complete truth on a doctrine, but that does NOT mean the revelation before given by him was faulty, just incomplete!
the OT pointed towards jesus, but the NT Apostles, especially paul, were given by him the comoplete/full truth of what the Cross and messiah meant!
"God was aware that too much revelation too quickly would result in a rejection of God by man?"
.But that phrasing in the form of a question doesn't seem to communicate what I meant... wow... this takes a lot of accommodating..
Is it unacceptable to you if I keep it the way I originally worded it
now that you are aware that the phrasing is not intended to communicate that God was unaware of ancient man's difficulty in accepting a God who, in their minds, would have been illogical, incongruent and weak?
Since you agree with DA and PR, perhaps you could rephrase the point for me more to your liking?
i agree this can sometimes be useful:wavey:I have found that there's always a different way to say the same thing and, if it helps others understand the meaning, then why not?
Geerhardus Vos said long ago. “The eschatological is an older strand in revelation than the soteric.”[1] God made the heavens and the earth that they might be brought to glory by the obedience of one of His sons. The first son failed; the last Adam succeeded. Though “all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God” (Rom. 3:23), there is One who never sinned. Since Adam was the first sinner, he fell short of the glory of God. Since Christ never sinned, He did not fall short of the glory of God. His human nature was glorified at His resurrection as a result of His obedience. God has devised a way that we, too, might gain that glory. Second Thessalonians 2:14 says, “It was for this He called you through our gospel, that you may gain the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ” (NAU). Gaining the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ means that all gospel believers will be glorified as their Lord was (Phil. 3:20-21). All gospel believers are brought into a state of glory by the obedience of the One. The first man sinned; the last Adam obeyed and brings many sons to glory with Him. Christ brings creation to its eschatological goal. But creation’s eschatological goal was part of its protological potential though dependent upon the obedience of God’s son. Christ is the obedient Son who recapitulates all things, thus bringing all things to their intended terminus.
humblethinker
HT....God is never unaware. Man since the fall always rejects God ...on the terms God has revealed to him.
3 This is an evil among all things that are done under the sun, that there is one event unto all: yea, also the heart of the sons of men is full of evil, and madness is in their heart while they live, and after that they go to the dead
God already knows the result.....it is not up to man to accept God, because he never will......so there is no such..."result"
.
Ht.....I question the idea of asking these questions ...as if God has not given us ALL that pertains to life and godliness. With all these questions what are you aiming at??? I cannot see any ....goal..what are you targeting????.... personally....I do not desire any kind of question along these lines.
HT.....I am just one person and you do not have to put things in a way that I approve of, or disapprove of. You can express what you want for sure. My concern is that having seen your posts in times past I would raise a caution that some of the men you seem to read are taking a toll on your thoughts of God....and in my view ...not in a healthy direction.
Others might like to interact along these lines...but i usually turn to more biblical issues.
Ht....with the biblical framework and worldview that I see expressed in the bible this question is flawed to a point where it cannot recover.What fallen man thinks of God is almost always negative and twisted so we must look elsewhere for solutions.
As I said before.....God redeeming His elect out from among a lost and dying humanity, for His own Glory.....
restoring sacred space,[where God communes with man}
peace {the elect being justified,rom 5:1 rom 8:1]
and rest[sabbath]- here and eternally]
i agree this can sometimes be useful:wavey:
So, unless I missed it, what is your opinion as to why God used divine accommodation and progressive revelation?
There is a twofold consideration of Providence, according to its twofold object and manner of dispensation; the one in general, exercised about all creatures, rational and irrational, animate and inanimate; the other special and peculiar. Christ has a universal empire over all things (Ephesians 1:22); He is the head of the whole world by way of dominion, but a head to the Church by way of union and special influence (John 17:2). He is ‘the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe’ (1 Timothy 4:10). The Church is His special care and charge. He rules the world for its good, as a head consulting the welfare of the body.
Do you see at any time a rub of Providence diverting the course of good men from falling into evil, or wicked men from committing evil? How loudly do such Providences proclaim the truth and certainty of the Scriptures, which tell us that ‘the way of man is not in himself, neither is it in him that walketh to direct his steps’ (Jeremiah 10:23), and that ‘a man’s heart deviseth his way: but the LORD directeth his steps’ (Proverbs 16:9)!
I consider Abram's obedience to God's command in Genesis 12 to support the fact Abram was, indeed, a theist.
Harlow believes in theistic evolution. I do not. Ergo I cannot agree with him.
So, you would agree then, that all revelation prior to Jesus should be understood in light of Jesus. His life/death on earth should explain the old testament and should be the lense through which we view all previous revelation.
The answer I seem to be getting is a non-answer. I propose it was the case that God, motivated by love and for sake of relationship, knowing the immaturity and weakness of man, chose to accommodate his weakness. What is your answer as to why He did this?
Your answer is your opinion, so it is the case that you have an opinion and I would like to know it. Your opinion does inform and influence what you perceive to be truth.
Harlow believes in theistic evolution. I do not. Ergo I cannot agree with him.
While reading this essay, I came across this:
Divine Accommodation:
This principle holds that God condescends to reveal himself in ways that human beings can understand. He adapts his message to our limited human capacities, not only in Scripture but in creation itself. In the case of the biblical writers, this means that God did not yank them out of their ancient worldviews or conceptualities but inspired them within their culture-specific frameworks of understanding, meeting them where they were. The second principle is progressive revelation, which states that God’s self-disclosure is ongoing and has unfolded in stages. When used of the Bible, this principle affirms that God did not vouchsafe everything to the biblical authors at one time but gradually. For instance, God allowed many of the Old Testament authors toretain their belief that other gods besides Yahweh existed and to write as if this were so and even to depict God stating as much (for example, Exod. 12:12; 15:11; 20:2–3; Deut. 32:8–9; Ps. 82; Ps. 89:6–10), before revealing to later biblical authors that Yahweh is in fact the only god there is (for example, Isa. 43:10–11; 44:6; 46:1–13). The principle of progressive revelation affirms also that later stages of God’s disclosure should issue in a revised appreciation of earlier stages. So, for instance, at a very broad level we should say that New Testament revelation clarifies and completes Old Testament revelation.
I agree with this view and find that it ties in nicely with Paul's description of the law and depictions of God or what pleases Him were actually a shadow of the reality of God in Jesus.
Discuss...
The answer I seem to be getting is a non-answer. I propose it was the case that God, motivated by love and for sake of relationship, knowing the immaturity and weakness of man, chose to accommodate his weakness. What is your answer as to why He did this?
Your answer is your opinion, so it is the case that you have an opinion and I would like to know it. Your opinion does inform and influence what you perceive to be truth.
The revelation of God in the person of Jesus IS the final and complete revelation from God, as he was God Incarnate!
ALL prior revelations were JUST as trustworthy, as God inspired them to the same extent, as those men who wrote the OT were moved upon by same holy spireit as NT writers, its just that God gave partially, part of hios salvation picture, filling it in through the ages, and finally completed when Christ came!
God did NOT have the OT writers author ANY falsehood.errors, ALl they said was correct and revelation of the lord, but not all that He had to give us at the time!
Interesting read; Although hasn't man always learned what he knows gradually?. For man everything has to start at the beginning. This is probably why we have a hard time understanding that God has no beginning. There isn't any way I could know this except He tells us this and I accept it because I believe all God says. Yet I do not understand existance with out a beginning.
MB
Yes, I agree that God was not deceptive or false in his character or motivation. God accommodates man such that He is willing to humble Himself for the sake of relationship. It is not the case that Jesus is to be viewed in light of the Old Testament but rather any and all depictions of God in the old testament are to be seen in light of Jesus. God looks like Jesus and his heart toward us is Jesus on the cross. We must forego our ideas of God being totally and exhaustively 'changeless' in every conceivable way. Imo, the greatest conceivable being is a person who initiates and responds to other persons in a relationship of love. Imo, this was the experience of the persons in the Trinity prior to creation.
Point ios that its the SAME GOD in either OT/NT, as He was giving revelation to the prophets SAMEway gave it to the Apostles!
And Jesus was same God who ordered the isrealitites to conquer the promised land and destroy all livng things, as he was the One who died for Sins!
NOT God of OT cruel, NT God love
SAME God!
Correct: one God.
Yeshua, why did God demonstrate divine accommodation? For what purpose? What was there to gain?
God allowed many of the Old Testament authors to retain their belief that other gods besides Yahweh existed and to write as if this were so and even to depict God stating as much (for example, Exod. 12:12; 15:11; 20:2–3; Deut. 32:8–9; Ps. 82; Ps. 89:6–10)