Why I'm responding to you is a mystery to me--perhaps it's because you've begged the question by ignoring something in a text you've quoted.
Furthermore, why you're still allowed to post here after saying that all Calvinists hate Jews is beyond me. Had you been a Calvinist and said such a thing, you'd have been banned immediately. However, being that you're a non-Calvinist, you've received a free pass.......but, I digress.
In any event, you ask the Calvinists to answer a supposed conundrum, which is, indeed, easily solvable, while ignoring this conundrum in your own theology:
How can it be that Judas was the "son of perdition?" For him to be labeled as such, even by Christ Himself, means that he was beyond salvation. How is this possible in your schema? After all, won't Arminians argue that everyone is "saveable" if they will only choose Christ? The label "son of perdition" or "son of destruction" states, rather harshly, that there is no chance Judas would be saved as he is not part of the elect and there is no salvation available to him.
The Archangel