“Him who knew no sin he made to be sin on our behalf; that we might become the righteousness of God in him.” (2Co 5:21 ASV)
The Macmillan Dictionary gives 2 meanings for "might" which can determine the full meaning of the term "might become". Does it mean 1) there is a possibility; or does it mean 2) an action in order to do something? The words "might become" or the KJV "might be made" are a grammatical construction in English of one Greek word: ginomai, Strong's #1096. Because of the construction in the Greek, it is difficult to do a Greek word study and get an exact determination of the meaning, so we end up going on context and comparing Scripture with Scripture. I ignore self-proclaimed Hebrew/Greek experts in online Forums and stick with recognized men of God.
In the verse itself we have God's action making the Son sin in our place, and the merit for the righteousness is "in him", the merit is not in us. So, is being "in him" our act, our merit?
Earlier in the paragraph we have been instructed:
“Wherefore if any man is in Christ, he is a new creature: the old things are passed away; behold, they are become new. But all things are of God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ, and gave unto us the ministry of reconciliation;” (2Co 5:17-18 ASV)
Paul had told the Corinthians in his first epistle how it is the believers are in Christ:
“that no flesh should glory before God. But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who was made unto us wisdom from God, and righteousness and sanctification, and redemption: that, according as it is written, He that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord.” (1Co 1:29-31 ASV)
Therefore the meaning of the verse 5:21 is clearly: “He has made Him who knew nothing of sin to be sin for us, in order that in Him we may become the righteousness of God.” (2Co 5:21 Wey)
There is no "possibility" that the merit here is based on the "might" be action of man; it is the action of God through the merit of Jesus Christ. It is similar to Paul's statement in Galatians where the English "might" is found:
“who gave himself for our sins, that he might deliver us out of this present evil world, according to the will of our God and Father:” (Ga 1:4 ASV)
The word "might" is connected to the act of Jesus Christ, therefore it is not mere possibility, as again the 1912 Weymouth translation indicates:
“who gave Himself to suffer for our sins in order to rescue us from the present wicked age in accordance with the will of our God and Father.” (Ga 1:4 Wey) It is in accordance with God' will, not the will of man!
So in the English we have the word "might' meaning "in order to do something" with the merit and action being solidly based on the Triune God. No hint here of a mere possibility depending on man's will.
The Macmillan Dictionary gives 2 meanings for "might" which can determine the full meaning of the term "might become". Does it mean 1) there is a possibility; or does it mean 2) an action in order to do something? The words "might become" or the KJV "might be made" are a grammatical construction in English of one Greek word: ginomai, Strong's #1096. Because of the construction in the Greek, it is difficult to do a Greek word study and get an exact determination of the meaning, so we end up going on context and comparing Scripture with Scripture. I ignore self-proclaimed Hebrew/Greek experts in online Forums and stick with recognized men of God.
In the verse itself we have God's action making the Son sin in our place, and the merit for the righteousness is "in him", the merit is not in us. So, is being "in him" our act, our merit?
Earlier in the paragraph we have been instructed:
“Wherefore if any man is in Christ, he is a new creature: the old things are passed away; behold, they are become new. But all things are of God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ, and gave unto us the ministry of reconciliation;” (2Co 5:17-18 ASV)
Paul had told the Corinthians in his first epistle how it is the believers are in Christ:
“that no flesh should glory before God. But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who was made unto us wisdom from God, and righteousness and sanctification, and redemption: that, according as it is written, He that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord.” (1Co 1:29-31 ASV)
Therefore the meaning of the verse 5:21 is clearly: “He has made Him who knew nothing of sin to be sin for us, in order that in Him we may become the righteousness of God.” (2Co 5:21 Wey)
There is no "possibility" that the merit here is based on the "might" be action of man; it is the action of God through the merit of Jesus Christ. It is similar to Paul's statement in Galatians where the English "might" is found:
“who gave himself for our sins, that he might deliver us out of this present evil world, according to the will of our God and Father:” (Ga 1:4 ASV)
The word "might" is connected to the act of Jesus Christ, therefore it is not mere possibility, as again the 1912 Weymouth translation indicates:
“who gave Himself to suffer for our sins in order to rescue us from the present wicked age in accordance with the will of our God and Father.” (Ga 1:4 Wey) It is in accordance with God' will, not the will of man!
So in the English we have the word "might' meaning "in order to do something" with the merit and action being solidly based on the Triune God. No hint here of a mere possibility depending on man's will.