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Love wins -- an Orthodox view of salvation

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
The "celestial flesh" controversy, which is a form of incipient Gnosticism; full blown Pelagianism (with its denial of original sin); denial of the substitutionary atonement (which is the purpose of this thread); rejection of salvation by faith alone et. al.
If I am guessing right he may believe in the Christus Victor view of the atonement and may even deny that hell is eternal.
 

Thomas Helwys

New Member
The "celestial flesh" controversy, which is a form of incipient Gnosticism; full blown Pelagianism (with its denial of original sin); denial of the substitutionary atonement (which is the purpose of this thread); rejection of salvation by faith alone et. al.

You have been misinformed. Anabaptists were not Pelagians, and they did not reject salvation by faith alone. It seems you are going by what their enemies said about them rather than their own words. Further, they held many views of the atonement. Some rejected penal substitution, as do I.
 

Thomas Helwys

New Member
If I am guessing right he may believe in the Christus Victor view of the atonement and may even deny that hell is eternal.

To answer this, I am comfortable with any of the atonement views held by the early church up through the first thousand years, and none developed after that.

About hell, neither I nor anyone other than God can know or determine the duration of hell, as only God can set the duration of an "aion" (eon), or age.

If my views are a problem for the forum, I will voluntarily leave.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Hey, you started a thread citing this one priest, so don't be so quick to distance yourself from what he said.

I have some knowledge of Eastern Orthodoxy. EO's view of theosis dominates their understanding of soteriology. While EO claims that salvation is by grace alone, it does not believe it is by faith alone. According to EO, salvation is found through the church, sacraments, and personal piety. This a distinctly different view than Baptist soteriology. In fact it is not Baptist soteriology, and anyone who holds to the EO view of soteriology is decidedly not Baptist.

Don't orthodox focus more on Jesus humanity, how he identifies with us, and not so much upon a penal substitutionary death on calvary for our sins?

they don't hold to atonement by that act as we do?

they hold to more a quai sacramental graces you to get yourself purified and thus saved?
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
If my views are a problem for the forum, I will voluntarily leave.

That is a joke! How many times have I read this line from you? What happens is that others oppose your views and you come roaring back in a very indictive spirit instead of leaving. If you do leave, it is but for a moment and you are right back teaching your atonement heresy that openly denies the necessity of the shedding of Christ's blood for the remission of sins - Heb. 9:22
 

Alive in Christ

New Member
I thought that was quite good.

It, obviously, isnt a comprehensive treatment, but I liked it.


To the OP...Thanks for sharing. :thumbs:
 
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Walter

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
To answer this, I am comfortable with any of the atonement views held by the early church up through the first thousand years, and none developed after that.

About hell, neither I nor anyone other than God can know or determine the duration of hell, as only God can set the duration of an "aion" (eon), or age.

If my views are a problem for the forum, I will voluntarily leave.


I sincerely hope you do not leave. I really enjoy your contributions and manner in which you post-whether I agree with you or not.
 

Walter

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
That is a joke! How many times have I read this line from you? What happens is that others oppose your views and you come roaring back in a very indictive spirit instead of leaving. If you do leave, it is but for a moment and you are right back teaching your atonement heresy that openly denies the necessity of the shedding of Christ's blood for the remission of sins - Heb. 9:22

Deleted by me (Walter) Not posted in right spirit.
 
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The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Deleted by me (Walter) Not posted in right spirit.

Walter he has said the very same thing in the other section more than once while telling everyone he will be attacked (meaning challenged) and sure enough when some one merely challenges him he screams persecution while calling them every name in the book. Sorry, I have no sympathy for that kind of tactic and it is a tactic when it is repeated.

He denies that the blood of Christ had to be shed (Heb. 9:22) and that is absolute complete repudation of the very heart of the atonement.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
If I am guessing right he may believe in the Christus Victor view of the atonement and may even deny that hell is eternal.

Wouldn't holding to both of those place one outise the "bounds of orthodoxy?"

I mmean orthodoxy in the sense of recogized as necessary Christian doctrine to be held?
 

Thomas Helwys

New Member
That is a joke! How many times have I read this line from you? What happens is that others oppose your views and you come roaring back in a very indictive spirit instead of leaving. If you do leave, it is but for a moment and you are right back teaching your atonement heresy that openly denies the necessity of the shedding of Christ's blood for the remission of sins - Heb. 9:22

YOU are the joke.

What is an "indictive" spirit? :laugh:

Since my atonement views were held from the beginning, and yours has only been held since the 16th century, who is the real heretic here, huh, mr. "Biblicist"?

You are a self-righteous, self-proclaimed know-it-all, a puffed-up, arrogant, proud legend in your own mind. You may now resume your tactic of having a conversation with yourself by constantly quoting yourself and answering. What a joke! :laugh:
 

Thomas Helwys

New Member
Wouldn't holding to both of those place one outise the "bounds of orthodoxy?"

I mmean orthodoxy in the sense of recogized as necessary Christian doctrine to be held?

Amazing. Christus Victor and related views are the orthodox view, these having been held for the first thousand years of the church. Penal substitution has only been held since Calvin. So, which one is really outside the "bounds of orthodoxy"?

PS can in no sense then be said as necessary Christian doctrine to be held, nor any of the other johnny-come-lately interloping atonement doctrines.

You people really need to study scripture and the early church -- you know that same scripture that the early church recognized as the canon and from which it got its doctrines, of which PS was nowhere to be found.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You are a self-righteous, self-proclaimed know-it-all, a puffed-up, arrogant, proud legend in your own mind. You may now resume your tactic of having a conversation with yourself by constantly quoting yourself and answering. What a joke! :laugh:

There you go Readers, what did I tell you. I NEVER called him a single name, just described his methods and told you every time he is confronted with his methods he comes out name calling.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Amazing. Christus Victor and related views are the orthodox view, these having been held for the first thousand years of the church. Penal substitution has only been held since Calvin. So, which one is really outside the "bounds of orthodoxy"?
"It is right because it is early."
That is your theory.
You must also believe in Purgatory, baptismal regeneration, infant baptism, transubstantiation, etc.
These were all early heresies of Christendom. Origen was a heretic even by RCC standards. Look up some of the things he believed. Some call him the "Father of Arianism." If it is heresy you want to believe, then there was plenty of it floating around in the first thousand years of Christianity. I didn't know that is the way you determined the "correctness" of your doctrine. That is odd.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Amazing. Christus Victor and related views are the orthodox view.

It is anything but "orthodox"! Hebrew 9:22 in context demands that Christ's blood had to be shed or else there is no remission of sins.

In Context, the writer of Hebrews is directly applying Hebrews 9:22 to the day of atonement where the High Priest MUST bring blood into the holiest or else HE DIES and the atonement is REJECTED by God.

Hebrews 9:22 directly applies the phrase "without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sins" DIRECTLY to Christ as our High Preist entering once into the holies of Holies with "HIS OWN BLOOD."

The context of Hebrews 9:22 DOES NOT apply it to Leviticus 5:13 or any unbloody sin offering but directly to the day of atonement and uses the word "NECESSARILY" to demand the shedding of blood in that specific application to Christ.

You can't answer this contextually. You will simply IGNORE the context and apply it according to YOUR TRADITION you obtained from hereitics in church history OR you will personally attack me with more name calling BUT YOU WILL NEVER ADDRESS THE FACTS OF THE CONTEXT - as that is your modus operandi - PROVE ME WRONG IN THIS PREDICTION ABOUT YOUR RESPONSES!!!!
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
It is anything but "orthodox"! Hebrew 9:22 in context demands that Christ's blood had to be shed or else there is no remission of sins.

In Context, the writer of Hebrews is directly applying Hebrews 9:22 to the day of atonement where the High Priest MUST bring blood into the holiest or else HE DIES and the atonement is REJECTED by God.

Hebrews 9:22 directly applies the phrase "without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sins" DIRECTLY to Christ as our High Preist entering once into the holies of Holies with "HIS OWN BLOOD."

The context of Hebrews 9:22 DOES NOT apply it to Leviticus 5:13 or any unbloody sin offering but directly to the day of atonement and uses the word "NECESSARILY" to demand the shedding of blood in that specific application to Christ.

You can't answer this contextually. You will simply IGNORE the context and apply it according to YOUR TRADITION you obtained from hereitics in church history OR you will personally attack me with more name calling BUT YOU WILL NEVER ADDRESS THE FACTS OF THE CONTEXT - as that is your modus operandi - PROVE ME WRONG IN THIS PREDICTION ABOUT YOUR RESPONSES!!!!

Why I am shocked! No answer yet?
 

evangelist-7

New Member
He denies that the blood of Christ had to be shed (Heb. 9:22) and that is absolute complete repudation of the very heart of the atonement.
Yes, His shedding of blood was absolutely necessary ... to be our Substitute!
So was the death of a sinless human being necessary ... to be our Substitute!

What was NOT necessary was this human having to be God! ... What?
'Twas simply an additional bonus ... just an extremely more impressive demonstration of God's love!
Are there any Scriptures which prove that I am wrong?

Seriously ... I'm not trying to instigate any heart attacks!
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
What was NOT necessary was this human having to be God! ... What?
'Twas simply an additional bonus ... just an extremely more impressive demonstration of God's love!
Are there any Scriptures which prove that I am wrong?

Seriously ... I'm not trying to instigate any heart attacks!

You are definintely wrong. Without the incarnation there could be no salvation at all for a number of reasons:

1. No fallen man from Adam could satisfy the Law's requirements and it required a sinless man and only a sinless God could satisfy that requirement because "ALL" mankind had sinned. Jesus told the rich young ruler "There is NONE GOOD but one, and that is God." Therefore, there is but "ONE" that could do it - God.

2. The condemnation of sin called for ETERNAL death and no finite creature could pay that penalty for himself, muct less one other man beside himself unless he were INFINITE as well as human.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Yes, His shedding of blood was absolutely necessary ... to be our Substitute!
So was the death of a sinless human being necessary ... to be our Substitute!

What was NOT necessary was this human having to be God! ... What?
'Twas simply an additional bonus ... just an extremely more impressive demonstration of God's love!
Are there any Scriptures which prove that I am wrong?

Seriously ... I'm not trying to instigate any heart attacks!

IF Jesus was not God in human flesh, then we ALL here are still condemned and hell bound!
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You are definintely wrong. Without the incarnation there could be no salvation at all for a number of reasons:

1. No fallen man from Adam could satisfy the Law's requirements and it required a sinless man and only a sinless God could satisfy that requirement because "ALL" mankind had sinned. Jesus told the rich young ruler "There is NONE GOOD but one, and that is God." Therefore, there is but "ONE" that could do it - God.

2. The condemnation of sin called for ETERNAL death and no finite creature could pay that penalty for himself, muct less one other man beside himself unless he were INFINITE as well as human.

IF Jesus was just a perfect man, only human, his death would have been useless, as he would have needed no atonement for his own sins, nor could he pay for any one elses!
 
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