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If some see it in Romans 6, then is that the only passage, and how does one get from water baptism to spirit baptism meant by Paul?
We've pounded scripture upon scripture to you.....
Now, I know this is a GI-Normous task I ask, but you tell us what it is...WITH SCRIPTURE......
I think I might smell smoke.....
Matt. 3:11, "As for me, I baptize you with water for repentance, but He who is coming after me is mightier than I, and I am not fit to remove His sandals; He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire."
Mark 1:8, "I baptized you with water; but He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit."
Luke 3:16, "John answered and said to them all, 'As for me, I baptize you with water; but One is coming who is mightier than I, and I am not fit to untie the thong of His sandals; He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire."
John 1:33, "And I did not recognize Him, but He who sent me to baptize in water said to me, "He upon whom you see the Spirit descending and remaining upon Him, this is the one who baptizes in the Holy Spirit."
Acts 1:5, "for John baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now."
Acts 11:16, "And I remembered the word of the Lord, how He used to say, 'John baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit."
If some see it in Romans 6, then is that the only passage, and how does one get from water baptism to spirit baptism meant by Paul?
If some see it in Romans 6, then is that the only passage, and how does one get from water baptism to spirit baptism meant by Paul?
If some see it in Romans 6, then is that the only passage, and how does one get from water baptism to spirit baptism meant by Paul?
This is a root issue. While we all learn things second hand from time to time by asking a question and getting an answer , it cannot be said that we have really learned anything if we do not check it out for ourself.
When someone takes an answer and then searches for themselves if it is true or not....then they can respond with some conviction because they know;
the word or term being discussed
what the teaching means
where the teaching is found in scripture
what is the issue surrounding it
what are some objections to the teaching
what are some abuses of the teaching
who teaches wrong about it
what are the results of correct teaching
what are the results on false teaching
The scripture should be the rule for any teaching of course so if a person cannot use some scripture, or quote a link or sermon that offers what they believe scripture says....it is useless and unfounded speculation
that leaves you with;
I think that..... rather than
3 For what saith the scripture?
We've pounded scripture upon scripture to you.....
Now, I know this is a GI-Normous task I ask, but you tell us what it is...WITH SCRIPTURE......
I think I might smell smoke.....
Does this all mean that you do not have a scripture passage that teaches what Spirit baptism is and means?
Its like trying to get a Charasmatic to define and explain the "baptism of the Holy Ghost!"
Originally Posted by convicted1 View Post
We've pounded scripture upon scripture to you.....
Now, I know this is a GI-Normous task I ask, but you tell us what it is...WITH SCRIPTURE......
I think I might smell smoke.....
You have pounded on scripture, but have yet to prove that God spoke of Spirit baptism to us in romans, or anywhere else
Its like trying to get a Charasmatic to define and explain the "baptism of the Holy Ghost!"
You have pounded on scripture, but have yet to prove that God spoke of Spirit baptism to us in romans, or anywhere else!
The baptism in the Spirit has NOTHING to do with individuals per se at all. It is an act of God only performed upon the institutional "house of God." When I say "institutional" I am referring to the PUBLIC place of worship where there are a qualified and ordained ministry, with qualified and ordained ordinances, that is a "house of prayer." Every "house of God" in scripture is characterized by these PUBLIC QUALIFIED ministry and ordinances:
1. The Tabernacle house of God - Exodus 40:35-37 - immersed and filled
2. The Temple house of God - 2 Chron. 7:1-3 - immersed and filled
3. The congregational house of God - Acts 2:1-3 - immersed and filled
The expression "house of God" occurs 88 times in all of Scripture. Prior to 1 Tim. 3:15 it is NEVER applied to anything other than a PUBLIC INSTITUTION with PUBLIC ORDINANCES and a PUBLIC MINISTRY. In 1 Tim. 3:15 it is contextually identified with a PUBLIC MINISTRY (1 Tim. 3:1-13) who administer qualified public ordinances.
These facts are incontrovertible and cannot be HONESTLY denied.
Furthermore, every single solitary text in the gospel which promises this baptism is given ONLY to a PLURALITY of already water baptized believers (Mt. 3:11; Acts 1:5) and on Pentecost it is given only to a PLURALITY of water baptized believers (Acts 1:20-21; 2:1; 38).
Those who attempt to apply it to "in Christ" in regard to "spiritual union" are preaching "another gospel" for the following reasons:
1. There is no salvation OUTSIDE of Christ for anyone at any time BUT the baptism in the Spirit is FUTURE and UNFULFILLED in the gospels until Acts 2. Those who argue it was already fulfilled before the world began are making the future tense fulfillment in Acts 2 MEANINGLESS and REDUNDANT.
2. Spiritual union is quickening by the Spirit as the means to be "created IN CHRIST" - Eph. 2:1,5,10. and thus such a theory repudiates the new birth prior to Pentecost as well as personal indwelling which without NO MAN at ANY TIME can be His child - Rom. 8:7-9.
Furthermore, look at the basics:
1. The Administrator is Christ not the Spirit - "HE shall baptize you IN THE SPIRIT"
2. The element is the Spirit not Christ - "He shall baptize you IN THE SPIRIT."
3. The subjects are a PLURAL water baptized "you" - "He shall baptize YOU in the Spirit."
4. the mode is IMMERSION
However, in regard to WATER immersion all human instruments work together under ONE Spirit (1 Cor. 3:5-9) and thus it is the Spirit that is the administrator of water baptism into the metaphorical body of Christ (1 Cor. 12:27).
Furthermore, those who think the expression "in Christ" has but only one applications are simply ignorant of the Scritpures. There are seven distinct different ways to be "in Christ" in Scriptures. I will give the chronological differences:
1. We are CHOSEN "in him" before the world by Purpose - Eph. 1:4
2. We are FEDERALLY "in him" by substitutionary representation during the life of Christ on earth - Rom. 5:12-19.
3. We are CREATED "in Christ" by quickening - Eph. 2:1,5, 10
4. We are POSITIONALLY "in Christ" legally by justification through faith or imputation - Rom. 3:24-5:2; 6:7
5. We are WATER BAPTIZED "in Christ" by figure - 1 Pet. 3:21; Rom. 6:4-6
6. We are WATER BAPTIZED into the metaphorical body of Christ - 1 Cor. 12:13,27
7. We are EXPERIENTIALLY in Christ by faith walking in the Spirit - Col. 2:6; Gal. 5:25; Rom. 6:11-13; 8:10-13; etc.
I might add that the idea that we were "in Christ" by ACTUAL spiritual union before the world began is heresy in the worst sense as it makes us indiscriminately one with the eternal nature of God, and thus "gods." Isaiah 46:10-11 clearly and explicitly distinguishes Divine "purpose" from Divine execution of that purpose in time and space. This "spiritual union" reality doctrine has given rise to such false doctrines as the "Two Seed" theory, eternal justification, eternal regeneration, eternal glorification, that believers where never the children of wrath as others, that in reality we were always sheep IN NATURE, never under God's wrath, and the list of heresies go on and on in regard to this initial false doctrine.
I quoted two old Testament scriptures where the baptism in the Spirit occurred and what it is connected with. I quoted four New Testament Scriptures (Mt. 3:11; Acts 1:4-5, 2:1-3; 10-11:16). I gave a full account of what it is by its contextual characteristics and that it cannot possibly have anything to do with "spiritual union." The issue is very simple, if SPIRITUAL SEPARATION = spiritual death; then what is the opposite to that???? SPIRITUAL UNION. Hence, spiritual union has NOTHING to do with the baptism in the Spirit.
To argue that we were all LITERALLY and ACTUALLY in spiritual union with Christ before the world began not only makes the FUTURE fulfillment of the baptism in the Spirit on Pentecost redundant and foolish, but equally makes being "created in Christ Jesus" by quickening redundant and foolish (Eph. 2:10).
Unwittingly you are only proving my point and just don't realize it. You are talking about the "finished" work of Christ two thousand years ago, rather than God's eternal purpose before the world began that Christ would come and do that work. You are showing that the work of Christ was not finished before the world began, but had to be finished in time and space. Now, look at your own illustration of purposed work only finished in time and space:The Biblicist
Your reasoning is flawed and perhaps if you consider the facts of the cross you will see it...
Jesus finished his cross work 2000 yrs ago....you were not born yet, correct?
Did Jesus die for you and your sins at that time...before you were physically born?
Was full payment made and accepted before you were physically born?
Had your election taken place? or did you have to wait to be physically born?
Were you given to The Son before the world was....or after your physical birth?
Did the Son die a Covenant death for His elect sheep that he came to seek and save?
When He died we died, When he was raised we were raised...WHY?
You cannot nor should you attempt to ignore the Covenant of Redemption.
It was certain in the mind of God before the world was....the exact amount and identity of the amount of saved persons was and is fixed and certain.
You cannot divide God's purpose from the objects of His purpose;
Five verses backwards.
Acts 11:18 When they heard these things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, “Then God has also granted (gave) to the Gentiles repentance (change of mind) to life.”
God gave change of mind. What did God give change of mind concerning? Verse 17
The Baptism in the Spirit has only to do with the INSTITUTIONAL house of God regardless of what form it may take (skins - tabernacle OR stone = temple OR lively stones = NT congregation). It has to do with the VISIBLE ADMINISTRATION of the keys of the kingdom by a qualified ministry, with qualified ordinances as a PUBLIC HOUSE OF WORSHIP. It publicly accredits that institutional house of God as the "pilliar and ground of the truth" manifested in the gospel it preaches and administers through the proper gospel ordinances (1 Tim. 3:16-4:1). Moses completed the tabernacle BEFORE it was immersed in the Spirit ONCE - Exodus 40:35-37; Solomon completed the temple BEFORE it was immersed in the Spirit ONCE - 2 Chron. 7:1-3; Jesus completed the Jewish membership of the Congregation BEFORE it was immersed in the Spirit ONCE - Mt. 16:18-19; 18:15-18; Mt. 28:19-20; and then immersed the Gentile membership ONCE - Acts 10-11.
There were over 500 "brethren" that were present and saw Christ ascend into heaven (1 Cor. 15) but ONLY 120 were immersed in the Spirit on the day of Pentecost ONCE because the congregation at Jerusalem consisted only of 120. This was not an INDIVIDUAL baptism nor a REPEATING baptism as the closest example Peter could give concerning what happened in the house of Cornelius was "AT the beginning" or Pentecost, proving it was not a REPETITIOUS baptism with each believer SINCE Pentecost as the Protestant and Pentecostal claim.
B....Creation itself could not have taken place before the Lord Jesus Christ began His work as mediator...rev 13:8...and that work was before creation.Unwittingly you are only proving my point and just don't realize it. You are talking about the "finished" work of Christ two thousand years ago, rather than God's eternal purpose before the world began that Christ would come and do that work. You are showing that the work of Christ was not finished before the world began, but had to be finished in time and space...
Of course the parts of the plan are unfolded in time and space.Now, look at your own illustration of purposed work only finished in time and space:
.All the above was "finished" IN TIME AND SPACE rather than before the world began
Again, you seemingly cannot distinguish between God's purpose before the world began and the carrying out of that purpose in time and space.
You give as your illustration the "finished" work of Christ IN TIME AND SPACE but in your mind you are thinking that because his "finished" work IN TIME AND SPACE preceded my life which also is IN TIME AND SPACE that this somehow proves your point between the relationship of God's eternal purpose and its fulfillment IN TIME AND SPACE.
Now lets apply this principle to your attempted illustration. You used the "finished" work of Christ IN TIME AND SPACE as an example of something that occurred before I was born IN TIME AND SPACE to prove that something NOT IN TIME AND SPACE (before the world began) was finished NOT IN TIME AND SPACE! Can't you see the obvious plain contradiction in your own argument??? You can't use as an illustration something that is only FINISHED in time and Space (Christ's ministry on earth) as an example of something that does not occur in time and space (God's purpose).