Winman just because you don't agree with a person's doctrine does not mean they are always wrong. Anyone who reads the Bible and believes that the word sin against God means missing the mark is "foolish"! Consider the passage:
John 1:29 The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.
Can you honestly say that you believe that Jesus Christ died for "missing the mark" of the world?
I never said if you disagree with me you are wrong, show where I said such a thing.
You said you have heard preachers say sin is "missing the mark" and that you think that is ridiculous. I said the professor from RTS felt the same way and so he redefined the word hamartia. That seems to be the major intent of this thread, to redefine the word hamartia.
All I am saying is that perhaps hamartia means "missing the mark". If so, this shows the scriptures imply men do "attempt" to obey God and fail.
I believe this is exactly what Paul is saying in Romans chapter 7. Folks claim he is speaking from the perspective of a regenerate man in verses 14-25, but I believe I can PROVE from this passage alone that Paul was speaking from the perspective of a lost sinner trying to obey the law, but failing.
Verses 14-25 are simply answering the question Paul asks in verse 13 where we KNOW he is lost, dead in sin. Look and see;
Rom 7:9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and
I died.
10 And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be
unto death.
11 For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it
slew me.
12 Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good.
13 Was then that which is good made death unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good; that sin by the commandment might become exceeding sinful.
In verse 9 Paul says he was alive without the law once, but when the commandment came, sin revived and he DIED. He reinforces this in vss. 10 and 11.
So Paul is telling us here that he is SPIRITUALLY DEAD. He cannot possibly be telling us he is physically dead, that would be nonsense.
But now, NOTE vs. 13. Paul asks a question here, he asks if what was good was made death unto him, then he denies that and says "God forbid" but sin, working death by that which is good (the law) that sin by the law might become exceedingly sinful.
What does this have to do with verses 14-25 you might ask?? EVERYTHING.
Note the word "For" that verses 14 and 15 especially begin with;
14 For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin.
15 For that which I do I allow not: for what I would, that do I not; but what I hate, that do I.
16 If then I do that which I would not, I consent unto the law that it is good.
17 Now then it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.
18 For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh,) dwelleth no good thing: for to will is present with me; but how to perform that which is good I find not.
19 For the good that I would I do not: but the evil which I would not, that I do.
20 Now if I do that I would not, it is no more I that do it, but sin that dwelleth in me.
21 I find then a law, that, when I would do good, evil is present with me.
22 For I delight in the law of God after the inward man:
23 But I see another law in my members, warring against the law of my mind, and bringing me into captivity to the law of sin which is in my members.
24 O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?
25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.
The word "For" that begins both verses 14 and 15 points right back to verse 13. Paul is simply going into finer detail and answering the question he asked in verse 13 whether the law that is good has been made evil to him.
So, Paul is not speaking from some new perspective, he is still speaking from the perspective of a man who is SPIRITUALLY DEAD.
This is further reinforced in vs. 14 where Paul says he is "carnal, sold under sin". Paul had already explained in chapter 6 that he has been made free from sin, sin no longer owns him as a master and has no dominion over him. No born again regenerate man is "sold under sin". Paul is speaking from the perspective of a lost man here.
What does all this have to do with hamartia? Romans 7 clearly shows a man attempting to obey the law. Paul says he delighted in the law in his inner man, and consented unto the law that it was good, but could not find a way to perform it.
And before someone says unregenerate men do not delight in God's law, the scriptures say otherwise.
Isa 58:1 Cry aloud, spare not, lift up thy voice like a trumpet, and shew my people their transgression, and the house of Jacob their sins.
2 Yet they seek me daily, and delight to know my ways, as a nation that did righteousness, and forsook not the ordinance of their God: they ask of me the ordinances of justice; they take delight in approaching to God.
I bet you never hear Isaiah 58:2 in Reformed churches on Sunday.
So, you have to look at ALL the scriptures, and not just quote a verse here, and a verse there that supports your view, ignoring any scripture that disagrees with you.
So, the word hamartia meaning "to miss the mark" is a very accurate description of sin after all. :thumbsup:
