Featured Were Old Testament Saints Born Again?

Your thread/poll is titled "were Old Testament saints BORN AGAIN?"

and you want to discuss indwelling in your born again thread? Then ask me to start my own thread on the same subject as your thread?

I voted and answered your topic. And you don't want to discuss it?

Why don't you go start another poll

 

You may not know it, but you're not in the shallow end of the pool here.

You may be best suited over in the politics section, where you can throw around insults and have philosophical discussions. But we get into the scriptures over here.

Saying someone is wrong just doesn't cut it around here. And proving it is gonna take a little more than quoting one verse and a reference to chapter

 

That's an incoherent statement. Can you clean it up a bit?

 

Now that was funny...for real.

Laughing my eyes out

 

Just lookin' out, brother.

Wouldn't want you to get too far into the water and find out you can't swim

 

I guess it's easier to try to bicker than it is to actually address what I wrote back in...oh, I don't know, something like post #4?

30 posts of jabbing, and nothing. When you feel like having an adult conversation about the scriptures, c'mon back.

But I still think you're out of your element in these parts. Takes more than mere assertions here

 

I respectfully disagree. Where there is no indwelling by the Spirit there can be no Spiritual life, as the essence of the problem of man is spiritual separation from God or as Paul says "alienated from the life of God" (Eph. 4:18).

Paul does not provide a THIRD category of mankind in Romans 8:8-9. A regenerated man void of the indwelling Spirit is a third category. Spiritual union by definition requires "union" between the spirit of man and the Spirit of God and the spirit of man does not dwell outside of his body on earth.

 

I do not disagree with the second part of that but the passage of scripture does not say that man can have no spiritual life outside of the indwelling. Also, you can find no promise of the indwelling of the Spirit in the OT.

This you say, your passage referenced does not say anything about numbers of categories and neither have I.

Union is not defined by the indwelling. Please define union according to scripture.

 

But it does say that without indwelling "he is none of his." If I am not mistaken, you are then claiming that all living before Pentecost are "none of his" by this definition given by Paul restricting it the opitions to either (1) in the flesh - those who cannot please God - v. 8 or (2) those indwelt by the Spirit = in the Spirit.

May I ask how can one be "in the Spirit" and not in union with the Spirit or have spiritual life and not be "in the Spirit"? Hence, union = "in the Spirit" = indwelling = eternal life by that union. If not, then where is the third view mentioned that does not make "in the Spirit" = to being indwelt by the Spirit?

 

Ok, we agree but that is the new covenant. In the OT if you never had a sacrifice for your sin what would that mean for that person? Yet today we do not need that. The reason is God deals with man differently.

No sir, this is a false dichotomy and it is a tiring debate tactic. You know full well that is not my position. It is also a redherring to say that if one does not agree with you then they must be saying the exact worst opposite. This type of debate tactic needs to come to an end.

Ok answering a question with a question is not an answer. Please answer my question.