Don't even go there, friend. I taught English grammar years ago and I know when there is or is not more then one possible meaning to a sentence.
You said, "...you've just lost credibility." So by that statement how can one tell just how much credibility I have lost in your opinion? Such a statement without further information is impossible to discern. You did not make yourself clear.
It's clear. If I would have meant to say NO credibility I would have said so. What do you want me to say? You've lost SOME credibility? You've lost 37.4% of your credibility?
They are supernaturally transformed from the spirit realm into the physical one just like Satan did when He tried to tempt Jesus. And... just like the angels are sometimes transformed into the physical and appear to men on occasion;
Hebrews 13:2 Be not forgetful to entertain strangers: for thereby some have entertained angels unawares.
So far as I know (and I haven't studied it as much as you have) demons always need a vessel to inhabit--a person or an animal--or in another case they left their natural habitat and came to earth but are now enchained (Jude). We see this with the swine that Jesus caused the legion of demons to inhabit and drown in the sea. We see this with people that are possessed. Demons ARE spirits and they need a body to possess. There is no instance in scripture when demons could form a body from their spirit (that I know of).
Yes, Satan can appear as an angel of light. But the Bible never says that Satan was transformed from a spirit to a body in the stories of the temptation of Jesus. So where in scripture do demons take on bodily form?
Secondly, your reply that the dancing satyrs of Isaiah 13:21 is sort of ridiculous. Why? Well, look at what the rest of the verse in context (vss 19-21) to the subject for it tells us:
¶ And Babylon, the glory of kingdoms, the beauty of the Chaldees' excellency, shall be as when God overthrew Sodom and Gomorrah.
20 It shall never be inhabited, neither shall it be dwelt in from generation to generation: neither shall the Arabian pitch tent there; neither shall the shepherds make their fold there.
21 But wild beasts of the desert shall lie there; and their houses shall be full of doleful creatures; and owls shall dwell there, and satyrs shall dance there.
Everything in that prophecy has been fufilled to the letter...literally--- historically. Yet because of your personal prejudices contrary to what I have stated you arbitrarily declare that the satyrs are nothing more than shaggy goats AND that the dancing part was a metaphor. By what rule of hermenuetics do you justify taking such a position?
Read any recent translation besides the KJV. They translate the word as "goat".
And wild goats will caper there. [NKJV]
there the wild goats will leap about. [NIV]
and shaggy goats will frolic there.[NASB]
and there wild goats will dance. [ESV]
and wild goats will leap about.[HCSB]
and wild goats will go there to dance. [NLT]
Furthermore, why would all the rest of the prophecy be literal but that one point (satyrs) is not literal, but a metaphor? That is terribly inconsistent. You have some explaining to do.
I said the "dancing" was a metaphor. Here's that reading comprehension problem again. I never said the satyr was a metaphor, I said it was a goat. This problem is exacerbated because you yourself said my statement was "the dancing part" was a metaphor, just in your previous post. Goats don't "dance". They leap, caper, romp, gambol, cavort, prance, frolic, hop, jump, or rollick. When you assign an anthropomorphic trait to them, then they can be said to "dance".