Featured Where The Holy Spirit Is NOT

This is about testing the spirits so that believers may know the real Holy Spirit from the spirit of the antichrist.

1 John 4:1 Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.

The verse below is still about testing the spirits. The phrase "is come" means presently as to where Jesus Christ is at now.

2 Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:

"That Jesus Christ is come in the flesh" is another way of saying Jesus Christ is in you. Proof of this in testing the spirits may be clearer as we read on.

3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

Verse 3 is testifying that if any one confesses that the "Spirit of Christ" is outside of us in the worship place or anywhere as believers can feel that presence outside of them, that presence is the spirit of the antichrist.

4 Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world.

Now the line of discernment has been drawn as to where the real Holy Spirit is and that is in you as opposing and thus exposing that spirit felt outside of you as being the spirit of the antichrist.

That includes feeling the spirit coming over you, filling you up, and giving you tongues that comes with no interpretation when you have been a believer for a while now with the Holy Spirit already in you.

There are familiar spirits in the world that brings a supernatural tongue that is just vain and profane babbling nonsense as found in Isaiah 8:19 .

Isaiah 8: 19 And when they shall say unto you, Seek unto them that have familiar spirits, and unto wizards that peep, and that mutter: should not a people seek unto their God? for the living to the dead?

And so there is necessity not to believe every spirit as being of God, especially when it brings tongues with no interpretation for that supernatural tongues is of the world.

1 John 4:5 They are of the world: therefore speak they of the world, and the world heareth them. 6 We are of God: he that knoweth God heareth us; he that is not of God heareth not us. Hereby know we the spirit of truth, and the spirit of error.

Jesus gave us a promise on how we will KNOW the real Spirit of truth from the spirit of error.

John 14:16 And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; 17 Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.

The days of feeling God's Presence in the Temple or any place else are over.

1 Corinthians 6:19 What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own? 20 For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's.

2 Corinthians 13:5 Examine yourselves, whether ye be in the faith; prove your own selves. Know ye not your own selves, how that Jesus Christ is in you, except ye be reprobates?

 

You are only reciting a popular accepted teaching of educated Biblical scholars of the day. take a step back and discern this.

1 John 4:1 Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.

Verse 1 sets the topic; it is about testing the spirits.

If what you and others say is true that John suddenly switch topic to talk about a heresey of doubting He had ever come in the flesh, then explain verse 3 in how it singles out the spirit of the antichrist of being in the world.

2 Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God: 3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

From verse 1 to verse 4, John talks about testing the spirits and so you guys are reading it wrong when it comes to this conclusion below.

4 Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world.

John did not say "if anyone confessed that Jesus had not come in the flesh... " as in past tense, but John had written " And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God".

So it is about testing the spirits presently as to where Jesus Christ is.

How reasonable is it to start talking about testing the spirits and then switch out to the heresey that you and most others claim and then go back to the conclusion of testing the spirits in verse 4?

But again, it is on God to cause the increase. Sometimes when a believer has been trained to apply certain scripture in only one way, they refuse to see it in context for the way it was written.

 

No. 1 John 4:1 sets the topic and that is to test the spirits.

Can't be when it is about testing the spirits as stated in 1 John 4:1

At least you know that truth. Watch out for believers when they say that the Spirit of Christ is here or there because that is not the indwelling Holy Ghost but the spirit of the antichrist which is in the world.

I have a problem with any one teaching that you can receive the Holy Spirit again like this false teaching of receiving another baptism of the Holy Ghost with evidence of tongues.

1 Corinthians 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him;

The believer speaking in God's gift of tongues does not understand it himself either, but God does understand that tongue, which is why Paul prayed that someone else will interpret by the Holy Spirit that tongue that the Holy Spirit is manifesting so that the tongue would be fruitful to him too.

1 Corinthians 14:13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret. 14 For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful. 15 What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.

And so when there is no interpretor, that means he is a foreigner and is speaking out of turn and that is why he is instructed to be made silent in the church.

1 Corinthians 14:27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret. 28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

Discern this: who is Paul to silent any one speaking in God's gift of tongues if the Holy Spirit is manifesting that tongue? If it was a prayer language manifested by the Holy Spirit, would not Paul say that if there is no interpretation, then it must be prayer time? But no.

So when Paul said that he speaks to himself and to God in verse 28, Paul meant that he is a foreigner that understands what he is saying and so does God.

And so the claim that if someone speaks in tongue where there is no interpretation, it does not mean what you say it means.

Paul gave the bottom line on God's gift of tongues and what they were for and that was for speaking unto the people in their native language.

That is all His gift of tongues were for.

1 Corinthians 14:20 Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men. 21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. 22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not:

Once again, vooks, it is on God to cause the increase. Logic has nothing to do with receiving His truth. Babes can receive the truth before the wise and prudent of the world thanks to the Father; Matthew 11:25-27

As it is, believers have pulled 1 Corinthians 14:14 out of context to imply that Paul prayed in tongues instead of in context of verse 13 where Paul was talking about praying that the tongue he was saying would be interpreted while he was speaking in tongues.

Well, I am glad that you know that the only way you can know the real Holy Spirit is by Him being in you; not out there seeking to be received again by pushing people around or making them fall down or bark like a dog, or be stricken mute or act like a fish out of the water, or speak in tongues that comes with no interpretation.

1 Corinthians 14:32 And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets. 33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.

Proverbs 25:26 A righteous man falling down before the wicked is as a troubled fountain, and a corrupt spring. 27 It is not good to eat much honey: so for men to search their own glory is not glory. 28 He that hath no rule over his own spirit is like a city that is broken down, and without walls.

1 Corinthians 12:13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.

When believers are claiming to receive tongues which comes with no interpretation by that second supernatural phenomenon, you better believe that they did so believing that spirit to be coming over them assuming it was the Holy Spirit when the Holy Spirit was already in them.

No believer has ever had God's gift of tongues of other men's lips to speak unto the people that comes by receiving the Holy Spirit "again" which is why all those tongues coming by that second experience is just babbling nonsense that comes with no interpretation, because it is not of Him at all.

 

And yet after that testing, it points out what that spirit of antichrist is as it exists IN THE WORLD.

It did not say "kick out that person that confesses so."

1 John 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world. 4 Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world.

The end conclusion of this test is to assure believer that the One in you is greater than the one in the world.

Do you believe you can receive another baptism with the Holy Spirit with evidence of tongues? If not, then 1 John 4:1-6 reproves that cultic notion, but again, only God can cause the increase.

 

It did not say test the apostles. It did not say test the believers. It said to test the spirits.

It said to believers not to believe every spirit ( not person ) but test the spirit and that is by how the person is testifying of that spirit.

Every spirit that confesses to what that spirit is; if a believer confesses that Jesus Christ is in him, then that spirit is of God. If a believer confesses that the Spirit of Christ is in the room or in that worship place, then that is the spirit of the antichrist.

Preaching another baptism of the Holy Spirit with the evidence of tongues is of Pentecostal/Charismatic circles, brother.

So you are familiar with the popular misreading of Acts 19:1-8 . Let's go over that reference below.

Acts 19:1-6 (KJV)
And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples,

Paul came across 12 men that were some kind of disciples, but did not know what kind. This is why Paul had asked this question.

2 He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.

So these disciples had testified that they had not received the Holy Ghost, which was why Paul had asked again another question to discern what kind of disciples these twelve men were.

3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.

There you have it. They were disciples of John the Baptist's. They were not believers in Jesus Christ or else they would have referred to the water baptism in Jesus's name.

Then Paul told them about Jesus Christ as being the One that John the Baptist was talking about that these twelve men should believe on.

4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.

So they were never believers in Jesus Christ in the first place.

5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

Now they were baptized in Jesus's name, signifying that they are believers in Jesus Christ.

6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.

So they had received the promise of the Holy Spirit after they had believed in Jesus Christ and had been water baptized in His name.

Receiving another baptism of the Holy Spirit with evidence of tongues is not of Him. Believers often quote this passage as verification that believers do not always receive the promise of the Holy Spirit, but these certain disciples were not believers in Jesus Christ in the first place.

God's gift of tongues of other men's lips will be and can be interpreted. That was Paul's whole point right there. You bold it in red too as Paul was stressing that point that tongues will come with interpretation so that the other may be edified.

Foreigners will come into the church at Corinth; a city which is a popular travel way for many foreigners. Therefore any foreigner among them may step out of order by speaking in his native language when he is not really speaking with God's gift of tongues.

Paul saying that he speaks to himself and to God means he understand what he is saying as God does which is not like God's gift of tongues in verse 2 which you had agreed with me earlier that the tongue speaker does not understand what he is saying.

Which is why in that verse, he is seen as speaking unto God, not that He is speaking TO God, because the man is speaking mysteries which there are no mysteries to God, therefore the man speaking unto God meaning God understands what he is saying; not that he is speaking to Him.

to be continued...

 

1 Corinthians 14:Brethren, be not children in understanding: howbeit in malice be ye children, but in understanding be men. 21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord. 22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not:

Acts 2:
4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.
6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.
7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.

Their church was open to the public where foreigners are free to come in.

Don't forget now; you said that Paul was praying that someone will interpret the tongue he was saying as manifested by the Holy Spirit. You can't use that verse to mean something else like Paul was praying in tongues when he wasn't.

As for thanksgiving and prophesy, Paul stressed interpretation to follow as interpretation is supposed to follow any tongue manifested by the Holy Spirit, unless otherwise understood by a foreigner.

There is. The devil's tongue, which is vain and profane babblings, had existed in the world before Pentecost had come with God's gift of tongues. So is God a copycat of Satan's tongue? No. Therefore I believe Paul when he said that God's gift of tongues are of other men's lips to speak unto the people.

Paul gave a clear teaching of what the manifestations of the Spirit is for too, and that is to profit the body of Christ withal. And when tongues are manifested, it will be followed by interpretation of that tongue.

1 Corinthians 12:7 But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal. 8 For to one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit; 9 To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit; 10 To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues: 11 But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will. 12 For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. 13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.

So not only Paul set precedent for tongues to follow by interpretation in the assembly, but he testified that no one need to have another drink of the One Spirit to get any gifts of the Spirit.

When believers want to believe that their tongue which comes with no interpretation to be of God, they will look for it without taking anything in context of that epistle.

Not once, did Paul ever gave instructions about the private use of tongues.

Acts 2:
9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
11 Cretes and Arabians,
we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.

They were not christians when Paul had met them.

The apostle John did that in 1 John 4:1-6 and Jesus did too in John 10:1-11 as a stranger's voice for going up around Jesus by addressing the Holy Spirit to come and fall on them to get this tongue which comes without interpretation... hence the stranger's voice.

Feel free to show a verse that Paul was addressing these believers in Corinth about the problem they were having of interpreting their own tongue, because I do not know where that is.

The problem here is that you think the Holy Spirit will use tongues for praying and yet the Holy Spirit cannot speak for Himself.

http://www.baptistboard.com/threads/how-the-holy-spirit-speaks.98067/

Explained at this link to this thread in this sub forum if you want another example of how Apollos was just a disciple of John the Baptist's before he became a believer.

http://www.baptistboard.com/threads...hn-the-baptists-after-the-resurrection.98358/

 

Then why is it by what that person is confessing is the conclusion of that test on that spirit rather than on that person? Do you see any instructions to correct or excommunicate that person confessing afterwards? But no.

So yes, I agree that it is done by what believers are confessing as in noticing something about that spirit, but it is what they are saying is how they test the spirits, because that is how one tests the spirits individually.

That is why it ends in verse 4 about greater is he that is in you than he that is in the world. This is an individual test result by what you acknowledge of confess about that spirit in testing it.

It did not end with the conclusion that you and others see as being about the confessor because we do not see the judgment on the person confessing that way as saying that is a false prophet in verse 4.

So it is about how one acknowledges ( confesses ) where the Spirit of Christ is... whether He is in you as in "is come in the flesh" as in verse 2 or acknowledging where that spirit of the antichrist is by confessing NOT by saying Jesus Christ is come in the flesh which is the same as NOT saying Christ is in you in verse 3.

Because in verse 3, it is by what that believer notices where that spirit is at, as in outside of you is how we will know the spirit of the antichrist.

So verses 3 & 4 is why I read it the correct way by Him for the topic for how individual believers are to be testing the spirits; not people.

Are there people in you? Then that is how you are applying 1 John 4:4 as opposing false prophets outside of you. It can't be both in verse 4. You can't be talking about Jesus in you as being greater than false people outside of you. Therefore this is about testing the spirits in knowing where the Spirit of Christ is dwelling so that you may know what the spirit of the antichrist is as being in the world as outside of you.

Then 1 John 5-6 goes to discerning professing believers that have not tested the spirits properly as warned in 1 John 4:2 to prove that they did not test the spirits.

Snarky remark or an accusation made in the flesh? One way or another, it is not made by the Spirit in you. That's your flesh posting. Stick to the topic, brother. Be Spirit led.

1 John 4:1-6 isn't just about knowing false prophets because 1 John 4:1 says it is about testing the spirits in knowing what that spirit of antichrist is that is in the world so that you may know whom the false prophets are of 1 John 4:2.

If it was only about false prophets, then they 1 John 4:1 would be about testing the false prophets; not the spirits.

I pray that God will have you pay attention;

There is only one baptism of the Holy Spirit ( Ephesians 4:4-6 ) as that is the one hope of our calling which is the one that Jesus gives at our salvation as it is received by faith; not by sight. Don't bother citing tongues as a sign when Paul said signs are not used to prove to a believer that they have the Holy Spirit when born again. ( 1 Corinthians 14:22 ) So there is only one drink of the One Spirit by which we ALL have been baptized with; 1 Corinthians 12:13

It is when you HEAR them preaching this "ANOTHER baptism of the Holy Spirit with evidence of tongues" that I am speaking against. Some disguise it by asking "Have you received the filling of the Holy Spirit with evidence of tongues since you have been born again?"

This is the hypocrisy spoken of in 1 Timothy 4:1-2 and why believers are failing in testing that spirit when the Holy Spirit is ALREADY in believers when they got born again. There is no filling of the Holy Spirit apart from salvation because it is our being Spirit-filled is a testimony that we are born again and thus saved. Matthew 9:17 & 1 Corinthians 6:19-20

I am not allowed to link to apostate cites for you to read the Pentecostal/Charismatic teaching nonsense. You can do your own search on the internet for such wording as preaching to receive the Holy Spirit "again".

Explain why if they were believers in Jesus Christ that Paul had to tell them that John the Baptist was talking about Jesus as the One they were supposed to believe on?

No. I am pointing out by what water baptism these disciples were under to signify what kind of disciples they were as they were still disciples of John the Baptist's that still had not believed in Jesus Christ yet.

Here is evidence that there were still disciples of John when Jesus was on earth as opposing being identified as Jesus's disciples.

Matthew 9:14 Then came to him the disciples of John, saying, Why do we and the Pharisees fast oft, but thy disciples fast not?

Luke 7:16 And there came a fear on all: and they glorified God, saying, That a great prophet is risen up among us; and, That God hath visited his people. 17 And this rumour of him went forth throughout all Judaea, and throughout all the region round about. 18 And the disciples of John shewed him of all these things. 19 And John calling unto him two of his disciples sent them to Jesus, saying, Art thou he that should come? or look we for another?

John 3:24 For John was not yet cast into prison. 25 Then there arose a question between some of John's disciples and the Jews about purifying. 26 And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and all men come to him. 27 John answered and said, A man can receive nothing, except it be given him from heaven. 28 Ye yourselves bear me witness, that I said, I am not the Christ, but that I am sent before him. 29 He that hath the bride is the bridegroom: but the friend of the bridegroom, which standeth and heareth him, rejoiceth greatly because of the bridegroom's voice: this my joy therefore is fulfilled. 30 He must increase, but I must decrease.

Note in verse 25, not all of John's disciples got that message from John.

So how many disciples of John were there?

John 4:1 When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John, 2 (Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)

Must be a lot.

Matthew 14:10 And he sent, and beheaded John in the prison. 11 And his head was brought in a charger, and given to the damsel: and she brought it to her mother. 12 And his disciples came, and took up the body, and buried it, and went and told Jesus.

So that pretty much pictures John's disciples as pretty much spread out all over the place since John the Baptist's arrest.

Acts 19:1-7 pretty much shows how far apart they were.

To be continued... God be willing...

 

That was not my point. It was about what water baptism they were under signifying what kind of disciples they were.

Only because you want to believe in tongues that comes with no interpretation by receiving the Holy Spirit again.

Romans 8:9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.

That means you are reading an event in Acts 8:14-17 wrong.

Luke is the author of Acts and he is giving a history of the early church account. He is not writing an epistle as instruction to the churches, and so believers need to be aware when they are trying to fit their false teachings inbetween the lines especially when it runs contrary to scripture elsewhere in the N.T.

So may God help Romans 8:9 sink into your ears when you read Acts 8:14-17.

What was the believers in that area believing in?

Acts 8:12 But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.

They believed the things; not in Jesus Christ, but the things Philip was preaching. It was not a personal belief yet in Jesus Christ, but they were following Philip in what he was preaching about these things.

Acts 8:13 Then Simon himself believed also: and when he was baptized, he continued with Philip, and wondered, beholding the miracles and signs which were done.

Simon believed in the same way as the others did as Philip was getting a following in spite of them being water baptized in Jesus's name.

Paul had this trouble too with water baptism as people were identifying themselves with those that baptize them as being their followers.

1 Corinthians 1: 12 Now this I say, that every one of you saith, I am of Paul; and I of Apollos; and I of Cephas; and I of Christ. 13 Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul? 14 I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius; 15 Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name. 16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other. 17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. 18 For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God.

So obviously, more disciples were needed to go down there to get people's eyes off of Philip and on Jesus Christ as their hearts were not quite right with God in coming to Jesus because they were coming to Philip as being followers of him.

Even Simon was just a fan as he hoped to buy the power of being able to give the Holy Spirit to others by the laying on of hands. That is why others were needed to get past that fan boy adoration of Philip to start seeing the God they are all representing and that is Jesus Christ to believe in Him and not just the things Philip was preaching in following Philip.

That is how I am seeing this scenario at the moment, but it is not plainly written to explain it that way but there are a lot of scripture besides just Romans 8:9 that says you are reading Acts wrong to fit this other supernatural experience that comes with evidence of tongues into scripture as if Jesus does not keep His promise of giving the Spirit to believers when they are saved as in born again aka born of the Spirit.

It is important to point out that when they had received the Holy Spirit, none of them spoke in tongues.

John 16:13 testifies that the Spirit cannot speak for Himself, therefore He cannot use God's gift of tongues which is to speak unto the people only to turn it around to speak back TO God, because He cannot speak for Himself.

John 16:13 Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.

When Jesus was on earth, the Holy Ghost served as the Spirit of the Father. Now that Jesus has ascended, the Holy Ghost is serving as the Spirit of Christ. The Holy Spirit cannot take time out and speak for Himself as if He can say "Okay now. This is the Holy Spirit speaking now, and I am not speaking for Jesus Christ, your Good Shepherd. I am now using tongues to pray to God."

It is not happening. You need to test the tongues and not just the spirits.

I believe God's gift of tongues are of other men's lips to speak unto the people and that God would never mimick the devil's tongue of vain and profane babblings as found in the world before Pentecost had come with God's actual gift of tongues.

 

So that the whole church is edified.

That your way of being made silent, keep them off public? I had already explained this to you that 1 Corinthians 14:28 was about a foreigner speaking out of turn which is why they can tell him to be silent because God's gift of tongues will always come with interpretation. That is who believers in the assembly will know when a foreigner speaks out of turn as opposing God's actual gift of tongues.

I do see your flesh rearing again. Try being led by the Spirit next time when you post.

That situation depends if you are in China or in America. The land you are in designate the native language as the normal speech in that church. It is not always the case since one can have a Chinese speaking church in America, but the point is; what language is native in that church to ascertain what language is being manifested by the Holy Spirit to speak to a visiting foreigner by?

How would you know if someone that is an American speaking Chinese because he can speak Chinese as opposed to the language of Chinese being manifested by the Holy Ghost? Discerning of spirits? Will God give that gift to someone to judge it, especially when it is not coming with interpretation? It would need that gift because an American may know Chinese and the Holy Spirit may just be manifesting prophecy in that American to speak edification by the knowledge of his Chinese.

Let me ask you this;

If tongues can be used for prayer and for self edification and for giving thanks WITHOUT interpretation, then how would you know what it was that you were doing? Would any believer not be confused by that? And yet God is not the author of confusion.

So in no way Paul was ever endorsing tongues to be used privately because he was using 1 Corinthians 14 th chapter in exhorting believers that seek spiritual gifts to seek the gift of prophecy over all spiritual gifts and began to explain why by comparing the gift of prophecy against the gift of tongues on why the gift of prophecy is better, and that is because the gift of tongues is NOT a stand alone gift since it has to come with interpretation for it to be even fruitful to the tongue speaker.

 

I know the Lord is with me in according to our faith ( 2 Corinthians 13:5 ), but as far as spiritual gift goes, how can I say what gift I have to you when there is no way for you to confirm it? I need two or three witnesses to confirm that I have this gift to you. 2 Corinthians 13:1 John 8:17

I can't speak for myself; John 5:31 John 7:18

But, yes, in according to His word, just as there are members in every body, so is every one operating in a spiritual gift.

1 Corinthians 12:7 But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal....11 But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will. 12 For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also is Christ. 13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit. 14 For the body is not one member, but many.

I just do not believe God's gift of tongues would mimick the devil's tongue that was in the world before Pentecost had come. Isaiah 8:19 & 1 Timothy 4:1-2 Or else, how could we do this?

1 Thessalonians 5:21 Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. 22 Abstain from all appearance of evil.

God's gift of tongues are of other men's lips for God to speak unto the people. 1 Corinthians 14:20-21 It is not to serve as a sign for the believers as proof of anything ( 1 Corinthians 14:22 )

With so much abuse in tongues, especially with the kind that is supporting apostasy as a sign ( Matthew 12:39 & 2 Corinthians 11:1-4 ), I doubt God would even bother to manifest His gift of tongues in a church where everybody is speaking the same language when the gift of prophecy will do for the edification of the church as well as the written scripture of the KJV to be received with His discernment and wisdom, since Paul said this in 1 Corinthians 12:7 & also...

2 Timothy 3:14 But continue thou in the things which thou hast learned and hast been assured of, knowing of whom thou hast learned them; 15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.

Ephesians 4:12 For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ: 13 Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ: 14 That we henceforth be no more children, tossed to and fro, and carried about with every wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, whereby they lie in wait to deceive; 15 But speaking the truth in love, may grow up into him in all things, which is the head, even Christ:

 

Yes.