Hello DC,
This quote from the 1689 confession of faith I believe to be the perfect answer in that it leaves all of it in God's hands....
Who,and how many persons are elected is up to God entirely from start to finish anyway. If any person is non elect they will not be in heaven.
That is the only proper answer, regardless of the speculations of men...even good men like Spurgeon speaks from emotion rather than scripture on this issue. God is God....we are not;
25 That be far from thee to do after this manner, to slay the righteous with the wicked: and that the righteous should be as the wicked, that be far from thee: Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right?
DC.....I trust God and His wisdom...
If he has not elected all men...he has a Holy reason not to do so...
I agree with all of this, but, it doesn't really address the issue. We could not, in my view, address the aborted infant as "wicked" thus judged for their wickedness by God. We do see that the sin of Adam has it's consequences on all conceived/born, but, do we not also see that because God is just in His judgment, that He will righteously judge sin?
And truly we seek to set emotion and personal conviction to the side and just examine the issue from Scripture.
If he has elected all infants dying in infancy He has a holy reason for doing so.
If he has not elected all infants who die in infancy He would also have a Holy reason for doing so
And this is one of the primary points to examine: has God elected all infants that die? Or, would we view the death of the non-elect as infants as a consequence of sin which does not change the status of the non-elect?
I take the position that God judges justly, and judges sin according to it's severity, and the severity of punishment is according to the sin itself. This would place infants into a category where, though they are separated from God and need that condition remedied through Christ, we still see no sin of their own which could be judged, and we do not see the same pattern for men who are born, meaning, they are judged according to their response to the revelation provided them.
I give Paul's statements in Romans as a basis for my own view, that they will benefit from the grace of God in judgment:
Romans 1:18-21
King James Version (KJV)
18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;
19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
21 Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
Romans 2:11-16
King James Version (KJV)
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another)
16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.
And while we would not negate the possibility, and probability of God's interaction with the babe in the womb, we still have two different scenarios to deal with: the infant/child that may have the internal witness and knowledge of God, but has not had opportunity to respond with their own actions, and those who grow up and respond according to the separated nature they are conceived/born with.
The question is...does that make any difference?
Correct....
1689 conf chapter 10....point 4
4._____ Others not elected, although they may be called by the ministry of the Word, and may have some common operations of the Spirit, yet not being effectually drawn by the Father, they neither will nor can truly come to Christ, and therefore cannot be saved: much less can men that receive not the Christian religion be saved; be they never so diligent to frame their lives according to the light of nature and the law of that religion they do profess.
( Matthew 22:14; Matthew 13:20, 21; Hebrews 6:4, 5; John 6:44, 45, 65; 1 John 2:24, 25; Acts 4:12; John 4:22; John 17:3 )
This speaks to those who have been born and grown up. And, we also have the distinction of the revelation in view, which is the Gospel of Christ (as opposed to revelation provided to men in prior Ages, i.e., the Law). The proof-text of John 6, for example, deals primarily with the Incarnation and this Chapter distinguishes between the provision of the Law and the Provision of Christ. Manna sustained physical life, whereas the True Bread provides eternal life. Neither would have been relevant to the infant that died.
Now here is a question that I think gets us to the heart of the issue: if we allow that God ministers to the unborn child, and that the child receives revelation, understands it, and is saved through that ministry, is this while the child is yet alive? Or, is the quickening that takes place made a reality after they physically perish?
And I will withhold further comment until you address that issue.
I am a little pressed for time this morning so will just post this from the reference given:
Chapter 10: Of Effectual Calling
3._____ Elect infants dying in infancy are regenerated and saved by Christ through the Spirit; who worketh when, and where, and how he pleases; so also are all elect persons, who are incapable of being outwardly called by the ministry of the Word.
( John 3:3, 5, 6; John 3:8 )
4._____ Others not elected, although they may be called by the ministry of the Word, and may have some common operations of the Spirit, yet not being effectually drawn by the Father, they neither will nor can truly come to Christ, and therefore cannot be saved: much less can men that receive not the Christian religion be saved; be they never so diligent to frame their lives according to the light of nature and the law of that religion they do profess.
( Matthew 22:14; Matthew 13:20, 21; Hebrews 6:4, 5; John 6:44, 45, 65; 1 John 2:24, 25; Acts 4:12; John 4:22; John 17:3 )
I actually agree with both points, yet we have a couple issues that could be discussed.
First, we still need to address whether there are non-elect infants that go into eternal separation.
Second, do we see in point 3 a clear statement that salvation is accomplished by the Spirit separate from the Word of God, the "Ministry of the Word," which we see is normative in salvation for those who are born and grow up.
Third, when does regeneration take place? Every proof-text given refers to the revealed Gospel of this Age. So we can say we have two groups of infants that die in the womb, those in past Ages, and those in this Age. Those who take the position that men have always been regenerated by God prior to Pentecost may not see this distinction, but, the proof-texts above are specific to the Gospel of Christ Post-Cross, so they do not distinguish between the perfection of the Old Testament Saint, and this becomes a non-issue for them. However, we still have to answer the question, when does regeneration take place?
And I will leave those points for discussion. Thanks for the response.
God bless.