Featured 2 Peter 2:1 shows Jesus died for the non-elect

"But there were also false prophets among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you. They will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Master who bought them, and will bring swift destruction on themselves"

The word "bought" here is from the Greek, "agorazo", which refers to the "redemption" of Jesus Christ, of His blood shed for ALL sinners. This use is as defined in the standard Greek lexicons of Arndt and Gingrich, Thayer, and Robinson, and is also used in 1 Corinthians 6:20, 7:23, for this purpose. These people who are said to have been BOUGHT by the BLOOD of Jesus Christ, are REJECTING this fact, and therefore will bring "destruction on themselves", as did Judas.

See also Jude 4

"For some men, who were designated for this judgment long ago, have come in by stealth; they are ungodly, turning the grace of our God into promiscuity and denying Jesus Christ, our only Master and Lord."

Here the same word "Master", Greek, "despotes" is used for the Lord Jesus Christ. Not, as some try to get out of what it teaches in 2 Peter, by saying that it refers to God the Father.

 

IF you care to read, I am dealing with the ATONEMENT of Jesus, that He actually DIED FOR EVERYONE, which in itself PROVES the Calvinistic teaching of "election" to be FALSE.

 

"BOUGHT", as used in 1 Corinthians, is used for the ATONEMENT of Jesus Christ. Please read Scripture references before posting replies

 

YES, thousands. But, it is wrong to assume that just because a person for whom Jesus died ends up in hell, that somehow His death was in vain, or that there is some deficiency in His death. It is because sinful man "will not come", that they are damned to eternal punishment. This is clearly thought in the Bible for those who wish to see it!

 

I thought I have already responded to this?

 

That is YOUR own opinion and NOT what the Bible teaches. Why can you not tell me what John 3:16-17 teaches? As I have shown more than once, the language used cannot be for the "elect" only, as it is "conditional" which makes it possible for the "elect" to be lost, if you take "world" there to mean the "elect" only.

 

No, please do NOT put words into my mouth! I never said anything what you falsely charge. It is indeed false to say that God never intended the death of Jesus Christ for the salvation of ALL sinners. This is exactly what the Bible teaches, that Jesus' death is for the salvation of all mankind. You people cannot see past your warped Calvinistic "theology" that it is the likes of YOU who teach complete nonsense about the Atonement and for whom Jesus actually died. You distort the plain Teachings of the Bible to say things that it does not, and use fancy words and statements to promote what YOU think is the truth, and then try to distort what people like myself have to say.

 

That He gave His only Son for the entire world, whether they are lost or saved in the end, ALL have been Atoned for, but all will NOT accept this Atonement for the forgiveness of their sins, but seek to enter heaven on their own merits, which is impossible.

 

NO, the Bible clearly says that "God is not willing that any should perish" (2 Peter 3:9), which is speaking of EVERYONE, and not just the "elect", otherwise these words mean nothing, as if He would will that the "elect" be saved? And in 1 Timothy 2:3-4, "For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth", where the context with verses 1 and 2 shows that ALL means the entire human race. And, Ezekiel 18:23, "Do I have any pleasure (heb. desire) at all that the wicked should die?” says the Lord God, “and not that he should turn from his ways and live?" Clearly it is God's "WILL" that everyone be saved, but we know from His Word, that all will not be saved. There is NO failure on God's part, but man for not accepting His conditions for salvation.