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------His omniscience seemed to lack some information. He, while incarnate on earth, did not seem to know the timing of His second coming.
he limited Himself to using those divine attributes, but still remained God!Is Millard Erickson correct that when incarnating, Christ's divine attributes became limited? (Christian Theology: 1998:751) why/why not?
Is Millard Erickson correct that when incarnating, Christ's divine attributes became limited? (Christian Theology: 1998:751) why/why not?
He was still always God though, even while nurse feeding by Mary!What does the Bible say?
He certainly did not know everything about everything (i.e. time of return) but He did know everything about those He encountered, such as Peter.(John 21:17).
Bottom line we to compare the "divine attributes" ascribed to God in scripture, with the "divine attributes" ascribed in Jesus during the incarnation, It gets a little tricky when we consider Jesus before He was anointed with the Holy Spirit and Power.
Of course. He is 100% man and 100% God in Perfect Union.------
As true man, does Christ have a true human intellect as well as a divine one---as Grudem affirms?
No.Does true God require sustenance?
No.Did true Man create His own mother?
I am not sure of that. He has a very serious communication problem. Many of his posts are unintelligible, incoherent, often to the level of gibberish.But a long time member here just denied that!!

----I am not sure of that. He has a very serious communication problem. Many of his posts are unintelligible, incoherent, often to the level of gibberish.![]()
You certainly have the gift of encouragement, don't you?I am not sure of that. He has a very serious communication problem. Many of his posts are unintelligible, incoherent, often to the level of gibberish.![]()

They certainly were not limited when He raised the dead, stilled the storm, fed the 5,000 etc.Is Millard Erickson correct that when incarnating, Christ's divine attributes became limited? (Christian Theology: 1998:751) why/why not?
-----------You certainly have the gift of encouragement, don't you?![]()
---They certainly were not limited when He raised the dead, stilled the storm, fed the 5,000 etc.
However, I do have one question that maybe you can help me with. I am currently preaching through the words of our Lord from the cross. The first of these was Luke 23:34. Now previously, the Lord Jesus had forgiven men directly: Son, your sins are forgiven you' and 'But that you may know that the Son of man has power on earth to forgive sins.....' (Mark 2:5, 10). But on the cross, He prays to the Father to forgive those who are crucifying Him.
Any thoughts?
I know it sounds harsh, but it is true. I and several others have tried to encourage him to spell correctly, proof read, and try to stay on topic, but largely to no avail.You certainly have the gift of encouragement, don't you?![]()
So would you say that in Mark 2:5, the Lord Jesus is forgiving as God, and in Luke 23:34, He is asking, as Man, the Father to forgive?---
I don't see a problem with that. "Son of Man" may have as referent either the humanity or the deity (Jo 6:53, 62) of Christ.
Is Millard Erickson correct that when incarnating, Christ's divine attributes became limited? (Christian Theology: 1998:751) why/why not?