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Erickson on the incarnated Christ

SATS PROF

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Is Millard Erickson correct that when incarnating, Christ's divine attributes became limited? (Christian Theology: 1998:751) why/why not?
 

TCassidy

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His omniscience seemed to lack some information. He, while incarnate on earth, did not seem to know the timing of His second coming.
 

SATS PROF

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His omniscience seemed to lack some information. He, while incarnate on earth, did not seem to know the timing of His second coming.
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As true man, does Christ have a true human intellect as well as a divine one---as Grudem affirms?
 

Yeshua1

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Is Millard Erickson correct that when incarnating, Christ's divine attributes became limited? (Christian Theology: 1998:751) why/why not?
he limited Himself to using those divine attributes, but still remained God!
 

Van

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Is Millard Erickson correct that when incarnating, Christ's divine attributes became limited? (Christian Theology: 1998:751) why/why not?

What does the Bible say?

He certainly did not know everything about everything (i.e. time of return) but He did know everything about those He encountered, such as Peter.(John 21:17).

Bottom line we to compare the "divine attributes" ascribed to God in scripture, with the "divine attributes" ascribed in Jesus during the incarnation, It gets a little tricky when we consider Jesus before He was anointed with the Holy Spirit and Power.
 

Yeshua1

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What does the Bible say?

He certainly did not know everything about everything (i.e. time of return) but He did know everything about those He encountered, such as Peter.(John 21:17).

Bottom line we to compare the "divine attributes" ascribed to God in scripture, with the "divine attributes" ascribed in Jesus during the incarnation, It gets a little tricky when we consider Jesus before He was anointed with the Holy Spirit and Power.
He was still always God though, even while nurse feeding by Mary!
 

SATS PROF

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Yes both true God and true man. Does true God require sustenance? Did true Man create His own mother?
 

SATS PROF

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I agree. But a long time member here just denied that!!

If we are right or he is right, what does that say about our learning of the most (IMO) doctrine of our faith--Christ?!
 

SATS PROF

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I am not sure of that. He has a very serious communication problem. Many of his posts are unintelligible, incoherent, often to the level of gibberish. Confused
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oh. That still leaves ,EG, AH Strong: Christ has but one will (ST, 1906:695).
 

Martin Marprelate

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Is Millard Erickson correct that when incarnating, Christ's divine attributes became limited? (Christian Theology: 1998:751) why/why not?
They certainly were not limited when He raised the dead, stilled the storm, fed the 5,000 etc.
However, I do have one question that maybe you can help me with. I am currently preaching through the words of our Lord from the cross. The first of these was Luke 23:34. Now previously, the Lord Jesus had forgiven men directly: Son, your sins are forgiven you' and 'But that you may know that the Son of man has power on earth to forgive sins.....' (Mark 2:5, 10). But on the cross, He prays to the Father to forgive those who are crucifying Him.

Any thoughts?
 
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SATS PROF

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You certainly have the gift of encouragement, don't you? :Rolleyes
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Martin:

I know that is directed at TC.

But I am torn over the division of the responsibility of teachers/pastors to teach Christ and their parishoners/students to learn Christ. He is, after all, the Center of our Faith.

The issues re the natures in Christ are complex, and in 56 yrs (since saved at 19) I have never heard a sermon or a SS lesson devoted to them (except by me). Many scholars disagree with my view that all limitations in Christ including submission to the Father are only in His humanity. I am not surprised many are (IMO) confused. But my view is essential that of Nestorius who was poorly understood as well and who did not , in fact, divide Christ into 2 Persons. His view (The Bazaar of Heraclides 2:1; Kyle, Nestorius JETS 32/1)is the same as Chas Hodge's: a nature is an entity that acts. (ST 2:387)IMO, that is Biblically and theologically sound!
 

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SATS PROF

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Site Supporter
They certainly were not limited when He raised the dead, stilled the storm, fed the 5,000 etc.
However, I do have one question that maybe you can help me with. I am currently preaching through the words of our Lord from the cross. The first of these was Luke 23:34. Now previously, the Lord Jesus had forgiven men directly: Son, your sins are forgiven you' and 'But that you may know that the Son of man has power on earth to forgive sins.....' (Mark 2:5, 10). But on the cross, He prays to the Father to forgive those who are crucifying Him.

Any thoughts?
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I don't see a problem with that. "Son of Man" may have as referent either the humanity or the deity (Jo 6:53, 62) of Christ.
 

Martin Marprelate

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I don't see a problem with that. "Son of Man" may have as referent either the humanity or the deity (Jo 6:53, 62) of Christ.
So would you say that in Mark 2:5, the Lord Jesus is forgiving as God, and in Luke 23:34, He is asking, as Man, the Father to forgive?
 

Craig CrossWise

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Is Millard Erickson correct that when incarnating, Christ's divine attributes became limited? (Christian Theology: 1998:751) why/why not?

Yes, but this must be carefully nuanced. Clearly any human is limited in physical location, whereas God is assumed to be omnipresent; however, the 2nd person of the Trinity was sustaining the cosmos (Col 1:15; Heb 1:3) while incarnate, which to my mind means He had to have been omnipresent extra carnem, i.e. via the so-called extra calvinisticum even during His time on earth. Even if one were to claim that omnipresence is not required to sustain the cosmos (I'd say the three omni- attributes work in tandem), one must concede that omniscience is a requirement, and Jesus clearly didn't know the time of His return.

So, though during His mode of being as word-become-flesh living on the earth his divine attributes were not limited, they were yet limited incarnationally by the veil of His flesh.
 
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