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God Does Not Will Any To Be Lost, Some Men Do!

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Yeshua1

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Both, is the simple answer. It is the Godhead that has been offended by the fall of man, and rightly so "propitiation" had to be made for this. Jesus' death on the cross was to do just this. He actually appeased Himself, as He is Almighty God. No doubt the Father and Holy Spirit were also equally part of the Redemption of mankind. Then we have the finished work of the Lord Jesus, which was "offered" as Romans 3:25 says, to all those who would accept.
The sin debt owed was to God only, and the wrath of God needed to be propitiated...
 

AndyAnsell

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The sin debt owed was to God only, and the wrath of God needed to be propitiated...

I was responding to "Does Christ offer His atonement to us or to God to atone for our sins". The "offer" was to God to "propitiate" for the sins of mankind. And to the human race, for their sins so that they could come to Jesus for salvation. I did not make this clear. Thanks for pointing it out
 

TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
Administrator
The textual evidence for YOU is by far the better, as you well know!
Nope.

ὑμᾶς p72 B C P 048vid 056 0142 0156 81 88 181 322 323 326 945 1175 1241 1243 1735 1739 1877 1881 2127 2298 2344 al l592 l921 l1154 l1441 copbo arm geo WH NR CEI Riv TILC Nv NM

ἡμᾶς K L 049 104 330 451 629 2492 Byz Lect slav Ps-Oecumenius Theophylact ς ND Dio

Note that single reference to "Byz." The Byzantine textform includes over 300 extant manuscripts of 2 Peter and all of them read ημας.

About 25 manuscripts read "υμας."

And over 300 read "ημας."
 

AndyAnsell

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Nope.

ὑμᾶς p72 B C P 048vid 056 0142 0156 81 88 181 322 323 326 945 1175 1241 1243 1735 1739 1877 1881 2127 2298 2344 al l592 l921 l1154 l1441 copbo arm geo WH NR CEI Riv TILC Nv NM

ἡμᾶς K L 049 104 330 451 629 2492 Byz Lect slav Ps-Oecumenius Theophylact ς ND Dio

Note that single reference to "Byz." The Byzantine textform includes over 300 extant manuscripts of 2 Peter and all of them read ημας.

About 25 manuscripts read "υμας."

And over 300 read "ημας."

Ah, so you think that numbers matter? I speak of antiquity and not mere numbers of very late date manuscripts. You know better, but for "theological" reasons are not accepting this fact!
 

Yeshua1

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Ah, so you think that numbers matter? I speak of antiquity and not mere numbers of very late date manuscripts. You know better, but for "theological" reasons are not accepting this fact!
Interesting , as this would indeed be a case of picking between many who were much latter, and a few that were much closer to the originals!
 

TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
Administrator
Ah, so you think that numbers matter?
Yes. I think numbers matter. As does every textual critic on the face of the Earth.

Even Hort, when trying to displace that "vile textus receptus" admited "A theoretical presumption indeed remains that a majority of extant documents is more likely to represent a majority of ancestral documents at each stage of transmission than vice versa." (B. F. Westcott and F. J. A. Hort, Introduction to the New Testament in the Original Greek: With Notes on Selected Readings)

I suggest a careful and prayerful reading of
New Testament Textual Criticism: The Case for Byzantine Priority by Maurice A. Robinson, available at:

Robinson, The case for Byzantine priority

You know better, but for "theological" reasons are not accepting this fact!
Again, do not impugn my integrity in the open forum.
 

MennoSota

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Your point being? WHY would verse NINE say what it does, if it is addressed only to the ELECT? Simple question.
Read the text around the verse and ask yourself if this is a universal all or a smaller group all.
Ask yourself "To whom was Peter writing this letter, was it to the world or to those chosen by God?"

I'll give you a hint. Read the first few verses of the book and you'll recognize who Peter is writing to.

Honestly, Andy, do you never read a letter or an email in its context? Do you just pluck a sentence from a text and claim it has authoritative meaning standing alone by itself? How difficult is this for you to grasp?

I know I'm sounding condescending, but grade school readers can grasp the need for context when they interpret a passage. Why then is it so hard for you? [emoji33]
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
I remember disciplining my son when he was a small child. I did not want to spank him, but I did want to discipline him in a way that best taught him right from wrong. So I spanked him. Some would say that it was not my will to discipline my son. They are wrong. Others would say that I wanted to spank my son. They are also wrong.
 

AndyAnsell

Member
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Yes. I think numbers matter. As does every textual critic on the face of the Earth.

Even Hort, when trying to displace that "vile textus receptus" admited "A theoretical presumption indeed remains that a majority of extant documents is more likely to represent a majority of ancestral documents at each stage of transmission than vice versa." (B. F. Westcott and F. J. A. Hort, Introduction to the New Testament in the Original Greek: With Notes on Selected Readings)

I suggest a careful and prayerful reading of
New Testament Textual Criticism: The Case for Byzantine Priority by Maurice A. Robinson, available at:

Robinson, The case for Byzantine priority

Again, do not impugn my integrity in the open forum.

My point is very simple. IF you were to accept "ὑμᾶς", as the original reading, which textually no doubt is, what would happen? Surely this would cause problems for you with this verse?
 

TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
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