Featured Predestination:

Its "theology"

 

Yep, in those specific circumstances the call was for repentance, but even there salvation is not given as if it were a doggie treat given to the ones who did the trick correctly.

There is no verse that demands repentance for salvation.

Repentance does take place, but it is after God has chosen to save the person by His act of grace. If this were not the case then you would have reason to boast.

 

But this can be read different as the Greek of verse 12 is not clear

 

I am speaking generally, as those on the board

 

It still doesn't address the fact that God was sparing the lives in a city, not saving their eternal souls.

 

How so. Explain election as taught in the scriptures.

 

you will not listen and learn...

 

That's a cop-out. It tells me you don't know.

 

The election under consideration relates to election in its redemptive aspect.
The Scriptures speak of an election that relates to a nation (Rom. 9:4;
11:28); one that relates to a particular office (Moses and Aaron, Ps. 105:26;
David, 1 Sam. 16:12; 20:30; Solomon, 1 Chron. 28:5; the apostles, Luke
6:13-16; John 6:70; Acts 1:2, 24; 9:15; 22:14); and one that relates to the
unfallen angels (1 Tim. 5:21). In its redemptive aspect, election means that
sovereign act of God whereby he graciously chose in Jesus Christ for salvation
all those whom he foreknew.
Election is a sovereign act of God; he is under no obligation to elect
anyone, since all have lost their standing before God. Even after Christ died,
God was not obligated to apply that salvation, except as he owed it to Christ
to keep the agreement with him as to man’s salvation. Thus, election is a
sovereign act because it is not due to any constraint laid upon God. It is an act
of grace, in that he chose those who were utterly unworthy of salvation.
Man deserved the exact opposite, but in his grace God chose to save some. He
chose them “in Christ” (Eph. 1:4). He could not choose them in themselves
because they deserved judgment, so he chose them in the merits of another.
Furthermore, he chose those whom he foreknew. But how do foreknowledge
and predestination relate to election?
At this point we move into one of the great mysteries of our Christian
faith. The Christian church is divided on the understanding of this doctrine
especially as it relates to divine sovereignty and human responsibility
coupled with the righteousness and holiness of God and the sinfulness of
man. Scripture indicates that election is based on foreknowledge (1 Pet.
1: If. ; cf. Rom. 8 : 29), but the actual meaning of foreknowledge is debated. Is
it merely prescience or foresight, or does it relate more closely to actual
choice? Does God, in his foreknowledge, perceive what each man will do in
response to his call and then elect him to salvation in harmony with this
knowledge? Or does foreknowledge mean that God, from eternity past,
looked with favor upon some and then elected them to salvation? Both of
these positions must be set forth with arguments for and against.

- HENRY CLARENCE THIESSEN

 

Spot on!

An analysis concludes we were alive when we heard Christ's gospel, then put our faith in Christ, and then if God credited our faith as righteousness and set us apart in Christ, we experienced our conditional election for salvation. With the right understanding all scripture fits together and there is no need to say this verse or that verse does not mean what it says.

 

Jesus' human nature was "like" ours (read Philippians 2:5-8; Romans 8:3) it was 100% real but without any sin. This is standard theology!

 

Read the response

 

No, every Calvinists here debating that I can see, all have the same angle.