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John 5:26 - For just as the Father has life in Himself, even so He gave to the Son also to have life in Himself (NASB)
What does it mean that the Father "gave" (NIV says "granted) to the Son to have life in Himself?
Just shows to us that Jesus was/is the unique and only begotten of the father, is fully also God!John 5:26 - For just as the Father has life in Himself, even so He gave to the Son also to have life in Himself (NASB)
What does it mean that the Father "gave" (NIV says "granted) to the Son to have life in Himself?
Kind of a non-answer, dontcha think?Just shows to us that Jesus was/is the unique and only begotten of the father, is fully also God!
Do believe the Son or the Word (the eternal aspect of Christ) only became Jesus in the incarnation, and that it's the "whole" of Jesus who was "granted" life through the incarnation?adoke - Aorist of didomi - give, grant allow.
That the indestructible life of God was granted to the God-man persona of Christ in the incarnation.
While the mortal life of His humanity could be destroyed the life of His essential being ( the Logos) remained intact and was not touched in the Kenosis.
This is how He was able to raise Himself from the dead.
John 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
My opinion.
HankD
Do you see your answer as somewhat synonymous with @HankD 's answer?I believe what is being said is that the life of the Son is of God. Because Jesus is the Son of man (because Jesus took upon Himself corruptible/sinful flesh) God has given Him authority to execute Judgment (in terms of mankind). This uniquely places Christ as the point where God and mankind meet.
Probably.Do you see your answer as somewhat synonymous with @HankD 's answer?
Do believe the Son or the Word (the eternal aspect of Christ) only became Jesus in the incarnation, and that it's the "whole" of Jesus who was "granted" life through the incarnation?
That's kind of what I gather from your words, just want to make sure I understand exactly what you're saying
adoke - Aorist of didomi - give, grant allow.
That the indestructible life of God was granted to the God-man persona of Christ in the incarnation.
While the mortal life of His humanity could be destroyed the life of His essential being ( the Logos) remained intact and was not touched in the Kenosis.
This is how He was able to raise Himself from the dead.
John 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
My opinion.
HankD
I don't know how death affected the Logos - the persona of Jesus Christ. However It(He) did not cease to exist.Let me ask a question.
You stated; The Logos remained intact and was not touched in the Kenosis.
The Word of God states; And the Word (Logos) was made flesh John 1:14. Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption. Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, 1 Cor 15:50,51
Did it apply to the Word made flesh? Consider Romans 6:9 Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him, and Acts 13:33,34 God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.
Was it the Word, made flesh, who was raised from the dead to die no more, raised no more to return to corruption?
No, its that ther Eternal God the Son became a man, Jesus in the Incarnation, as he has both deity and human natures now!Do believe the Son or the Word (the eternal aspect of Christ) only became Jesus in the incarnation, and that it's the "whole" of Jesus who was "granted" life through the incarnation?
That's kind of what I gather from your words, just want to make sure I understand exactly what you're saying
Depending on how you define "nature" your statement could be very scriptural or very much out of boundsNo, its that ther Eternal God the Son became a man, Jesus in the Incarnation, as he has both deity and human natures now!
No, its that ther Eternal God the Son became a man, Jesus in the Incarnation, as he has both deity and human natures now!
The "s" in nature is problematic. Scripture teaches that the Logos became flesh, not that He took on human nature as an appendage.Depending on how you define "nature" your statement could be very scriptural or very much out of bounds
I believe we overcomplicate the issue. Christ gave up nothing except that he sought equality with God something not to be esteemed and emptied Himself. If we allow Scripture to interpret the verse, then the Kenosis becomes the Logos “taking the form of a bond-servant, being born in the likeness of man”. We can see this throughout Christ's work (from the Incarnation to the Cross) as He informs us He did nothing of His own accord but the will of the Father through the Spirit. This is perfect human obedience as God is, through Christ, reconciling the world to Himself.The Hypostatic Union and Kenosis doctrines are fraught with difficulties when one tries to chase down all the details.
Suffice to say Jesus Christ is fully God and fully man and IMO lost absolutely nothing in the Kenosis.
Whatever earthly limitations he was under were strictly in a voluntary agreement with the Father.
HankD
I think it depends on how you define nature. And it's almost impossible to get people to speak in unambiguous termsThe "s" in nature is problematic. Scripture teaches that the Logos became flesh, not that He took on human nature as an appendage.