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Featured The Most Asked Question During Ordination Exam

Discussion in 'General Baptist Discussions' started by Deacon, Oct 11, 2017.

  1. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    That depends on how you view the bible. If you view it as the inspired, infallible word of God then the case is iron clad. If you don't consider it inspired and infallible you will reject the plain statements and "spiritualize" it into nonsense. I am of the former persuasion. :)
     
  2. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    They may attempt it but they don't do it. Tongues, as discussed in the bible, are no more. You can't do what doesn't exist. :)
     
  3. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    There are 17 people specifically called an "apostle" in the bible, including the Lord Jesus Christ. But "The Twelve" is what we are talking about. The word "apostle" is a transliteration of αποστολος, one of two Greek words meaning "messenger" (the other is αγγελος from which we derive the word "angel").

    There are messengers (αποστολος) who were not part of The Twelve, it is The Twelve who will have their names on the twelve foundations of the Heavenly Jerusalem.

    Paul was not one of "The Twelve" as he did not meet the criteria Peter iterated in Acts 1.

    Paul says he was a messenger, sent from God, with a specific message (the gospel) to a specific people (gentiles). He makes that very clear in Romans 1:1 "Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be a messenger, set apart for the Good News of God."

    In fact he says the same thing over and over.

    1 Corinthians 1:1 Paul, called to be a messenger of Jesus Christ through the will of God.

    1 Corinthians15:9 For I am the least of the messengers, who is not worthy to be called a messenger, because I persecuted the assembly of God.

    Galatians 1:1 Paul, a messenger (not from men, nor through man, but through Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead),

    Ephesians 1:1 Paul, a messenger of Christ Jesus through the will of God, to the saints who are at Ephesus, and the faithful in Christ Jesus:

    Colossians 1:1 Paul, a messenger of Christ Jesus through the will of God, and Timothy our brother,

    1 Timothy 2:7 to which I was appointed a preacher and a messenger (I am telling the truth in Christ, not lying), a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and truth.

    2 Timothy 1:11 For this, I was appointed as a preacher, a messenger, and a teacher of the Gentiles.

    No. The gifts of the Spirit were given by God according to His will, at the time of conversion. Those gifts lasted for the life of the person gifted. What Paul is saying in 1 Corinthians is that the gifts were no longer being given to new converts, but those who already had the gifts were to be allowed to use them (forbid not to speak in tongues). But as those senior saints aged and died those gifts died with them. I use John as an example because he is one with whom we are all familiar and we have a pretty good idea when he died.

    The only confusion seems to be on your part. Nobody who had a gift lost the gift (the gifts and calling of God are without repentance - Romans 11:29). The gifts given to the older saints at the time of their conversion continued to operate even though no new converts were being given the gifts. :)
     
  4. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    But that's not what you said. You did not say the giving of gifts died with John. You said the gifts died with John.
     
  5. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    I know. Because they didn't. The giving of the gifts ended prior to Paul's writing 1st Corinthians. He said, in 1 Corinthians 13:13 "And now abide faith, hope, and love, these three." He did not say "And now abide faith, hope, love, tongues, prophecy, and knowledge, these six."

    Yes. As the gifted men of John's generation died the gifts died with them.
     
  6. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    Why did you even mention John? It seems Paul writing was the time point. What did it have to do with John?
     
  7. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Because he, and his contemporaries, were the last surviving members of the first century generation who had been gifted.

    Two points. #1 When God no longer gave the gifts. #2 When those already gifted, died.

    The death of John marked the end of the generation who had been gifted prior to the completion of the bible.
     
  8. Felipe Rios

    Felipe Rios Member

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    1. What is the Hypostatic Union?
    2. What would you do if they did not recommend you?
     
  9. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    The perfect unity of the Divine and human natures of Christ.
    I would do as the Lord commanded.
     
  10. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    This is in error.

    The word “glossa” is the language of a nation.

    There is no “unknown” tongue.

    It is a very sad translation that puts “unknown” in the English.

    1 Corinthians 13, “If I speak using the languages of the world, or speak the language of the angels,...”

    1 Corinthians 14, “One who speaks the language speaks to God ...”

    The point is BOTH are known languages to the listeners.

    When the people were spreading the gospel on the day of Pentecost, they were not using gibberish, but each heard the message in the language of their homeland.

    Readers, be very careful to not slip into accepting the modern thinking concerning “unknown tongues” as the charismatic folks teach.

    Such does not stand up to Scripture scrutiny.

    Caveat:

    When in private prayer, it is private. It is between two - God and that person.

    Should that person be in such earnestness that they appear as did Samuel’s mom, it is no ones business.

    Who cares the language used at that time. It is private, it is “closeted” and it is an actual language. It is not for the public, not to be used in public gatherings, and any who claim differently are unsupported by Scripture.
     
  11. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    It's not a Rock group from the 60's :p

    Here's just a bit from my handout on Matthew 4 - Re: The temptation of Jesus:

    Doctrine – Could Jesus have sinned?

    The Hypostatic Union

    The union of the Divine and human natures in the One Person of Jesus Christ. “Both natures are necessary for redemption. As a man, Christ could represent man and die as a man; as God the death of Christ could have infinite value “sufficient to provide redemption for the sins of the world.’” Paul P. Enns, The Moody Handbook of Theology (Chicago, IL: Moody Press, 1989), 228.​

    It is important to realize that in order for the redemptive nature of Christ to be adequate, both natures must remain at one hundred percent each. To make him more human than God would eradicate his being able to remain blameless. And to make him more God than human would eradicate his ability to completely self-identify with those He came to save. (borrowed from 'Why is the Hypostatic Union of Christ Necessary?' [link])

    Through his becoming human, he was able to identify with humanity (Hebrews 2:9) and give his life as a sacrifice for all (9:12), so that all those who would believe in him can enter into a new relationship with God that is eternal in nature (Romans 5:2). His sacrifice for all could not have been accomplished in any other way.

    Rob
     
  12. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Could it be that both John and Paul (as reported by Paul) actually did see the Lords return?

    Certainly.

    Paul records what was seen as unspeakable.

    John wrote down what he saw in the Revelation.

    The way some would interpret the statements of Christ is that the return had to actually occur within a certain time line, however an interpretation may also allow for the statements to be taken as to be seen (revealed) to them in their lifetime.

    “Seen” is not always taken as that actually witnessed as occurring.

    Such is the vision of prophets.
     
  13. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    Would submitting to those in authority be low priority?

    Rob
     
  14. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Is it better to obey God or man?
     
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  15. Felipe Rios

    Felipe Rios Member

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    amen
     
  16. Felipe Rios

    Felipe Rios Member

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    The local church is the one that ordains me, so if I was not recommended, I would still be ordained by the church, assuming the church would be willing to ordain me.
     
  17. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    When one goes before a council they are acknowledging that they are the leaders.
    God has already said that we should submit to those in authority over us.

    I'd obey God.

    Rob
     
  18. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    But normally a council is not in authority - they are simply an advisory board - esp if they are pastors from sister churches.
     
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  19. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    The council is given the task of examining a candidate for ordination.
    On every certificate of ordination I’ve seen they’ve signed their names.
    It is upon their recommendation that a candidate is ordained.

    I’d tread carefully before thumbing my nose at a recomendation not to ordain.

    That being said, there are plenty of Christians in positions of worth that have never been ordained.

    It is another path that the candidate could take - and perhaps what TC had in mind

    Rob
     
  20. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    Fully agree!
     
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