I NEVER said that God "punished Jesus in rage", but that the Father does have divine and real wrath towards sins and sinners who are not in Christ, and that He poured out that deserved wrath upon Jesus as our Sin bearer and substitute!
I apologize for not being able to shorten my post, but the importance demands careful consideration.
First:
Where you picture the blood as specific to the elect, I do not hold to that exclusivity.
If the blood was to follow the OT type, it could not exclude anyone.
However, do not jump to the conclusion that there is no condemnation as some would attempt to cast discredit. For the unbeliever is condemned already, not from lack of blood, but lack of reconciliation belief. (John 3).
Therefore, contrary to the reformer thinking (in my opinion, obliged by the circumstances of that time) the wrath was not because of God being enraged by the presence of sin, but the fulfillment of prophecy the Father stated would take place.
Why would the Father be angry at what He had already established as what would occur? Was the Father angry at Satan appearing before Him in Job, for if ever there was a time to show anger it would be in the presence of the father of all lies?
Even in the human thinking, if one establishes a scheme that has no chance of success does one have the right to be disappointed, angry, take retribution if the scheme doesn't work? Of course not. The scheme failed because it was planned to fail.
Second:
In the thinking that God must balance the scales by being angry at sin and sinners, there is an element of merrit pay. One sins results in God’s anger at both sin and sinner and some manner of restitution is obliged.
However, I don’t see such playing out in the Scriptures as it seems some describe.
The principle is that sin earns death (wages of sin is death), and the eternal punishment is based upon belief, not sins.
Another principle is that God acknowledge the sinfulness and presented not wrath, but solution. (While we were yet sinners...)
A third principle is how does God display wrath throughout the Scriptures. His wrath occurs by Him withholding His protection and sustaining. In every time the wrath of God occurs, it is when He objects and rises in opposition. (Think of the typical courtroom when a judge opposes a lawyer). It is then humankind reap what is sown (destruction) and the nature unconstrained revolts (earthquake, famine...)
So, at the cross wrath it is shown through both human and natural events that God did have wrath, but He did not pour it out on the Son, He withheld support for the Son, allowing the ungodly natural forces of human and nature to be displayed. (Father, why have you forsaken me).
Christ knew this would transpire which is given in the Gethsemane prayers.
Having written all this, you can see that I place the limit of atonement not as a lack of blood, but a lack of the Father, by His Sovereign purpose, granting reconciliation to any but the elect.
The doctrines of Grace are very precious, but there is a need to allow a greater consistency with the presentations and types shown in Scripture.