John of Japan asked me (and I wasn't able to see it until now):
"So when Christ came spiritually in AD 70, where was His dead body? "The body without the spirit is dead" (James 2:26)."
First of all, for those who may not know, my only times on Internet are either here in the library or at a relatives. Either is far from where I live. SO I just now saw this. ANd - par for the course - was unable to answer in the thread. That is why I started it here.
I am surprised, John, that you would even use this verse to try to prove your point. You do know the context is about how man - fallible man - can be justified. Just because Christ took on flesh does not mean that every single "body" or "flesh" verse necessarily tells us about Christ now.
Or should I, using this same lexical desperation of yours, say that because of Matt. 26:41:
"All of you must stay awake and pray that you won't be tempted. The spirit is indeed willing, but the body is weak."
we may now prove that Christ is currently weak, seeing that He has a body?
"So when Christ came spiritually in AD 70, where was His dead body? "The body without the spirit is dead" (James 2:26)."
First of all, for those who may not know, my only times on Internet are either here in the library or at a relatives. Either is far from where I live. SO I just now saw this. ANd - par for the course - was unable to answer in the thread. That is why I started it here.
I am surprised, John, that you would even use this verse to try to prove your point. You do know the context is about how man - fallible man - can be justified. Just because Christ took on flesh does not mean that every single "body" or "flesh" verse necessarily tells us about Christ now.
Or should I, using this same lexical desperation of yours, say that because of Matt. 26:41:
"All of you must stay awake and pray that you won't be tempted. The spirit is indeed willing, but the body is weak."
we may now prove that Christ is currently weak, seeing that He has a body?