Confusion on just what is PSA

Sinners do not owe God to pay for their own debt then?

 

Jesus fulfilled all of the requirements of the law, correct? It was Him living a sinless life, being God, and death by His shed blood in our place, correct?

 

Adam was under the Covenant of Works before the fall though, correct?
And if Jesus ever failed one time to not perfectly keep the law, was he still qualified to be messiah?

 

I cannot find the trinity or the Bible in there either, so none of them count?

 

Thank you. Please understand that I cannot respond to what you know, but only to what you write.

 

That's strange; I looked through a concordance for 'Trinity' and couldn't find that. Then I looked for 'silly, brainless arguments' and that wasn't there either, but you are certainly using one here.

 

The Lord Jesus certainly fulfilled the law, but He also fulfilled the requirements of the law.
Romans 2:26. 'Therefore, if an uncircumcised man keeps the righteous requirements [Gk. dikaioma] of the law, will not his uncircumcision be counted as circumcision?' But of course, there is no one, circumcised or not, who keeps these requirements, which is why the Lord Jesus had to come and suffer and die in the place of sinners.

Colossians 2:14. '.....Having wiped out the handwriting of requirements [Gk. dogma] that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross.'

Romans 8:4. 'That the righteous requirements [Gk. dikaioma) might be fulfilled in us who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.'

I should also add that He pays our 'sin debt' on the cross. We pray, 'forgive us our debts' (Matthew 6:12), and surely the parable of the unjust servant makes no sense unless the vast debt forgiven is our sins?

A false dichotomy, I think. To be sure, the Lord Jesus is the righteousness of God personified, but His perfect righteousness is nonetheless credited to us and our sins laid upon Him (Romans 5:2 Corinthians 5:21; 1 Corinthians 1:30)

Deuteronomy 5:33. 'You shall walk in all the ways which the LORD your God has commanded you, that it may be well with you, and that you may prolong your days in the land which you shall possess' (cf. also Exodus 19:5-6). Romans 8:3-4 does not teach that the law is weak in itself, but 'through the flesh'-- sinful men and women can't keep it. Had Adam kept the law given to him by God, doubtless he would have merited eternal life (Romans 4:4). But he fell, breaking most, if not all of the Decalogue. It was not the law that was weak, it was Adam and Eve. So in our fallen state, the law can save no one, but that does not mean that the moral law is not a set of rules that Christians must seek to obey (1 Corinthians 9:21); in fact they are written on the Christian's heart (Hebrews 8:10) and he does not find them burdensome (1 John 5:3); in fact he finds them delightful (Psalm 1:2; 40:8; 119:passim).

 

In fact, I find it 'necessarily contained' in Scripture (1689 Confession). However, it is not explicitly stated as you know very well.

The Covenants Part 1. The Covenant of Works

 

God, who knows the end from the beginning, knew that mankind would not keep the law. But, 'the law is holy, and the commandment holy and just and good.' It would have saved Adam had he kept it and it would save us if we would keep it, but we don't, so it doesn't and that's why we need a Saviour.