Featured What's the AUTHORITY for an English Bible?

First, the KJVO position is that the KJV is the ONLY valid English Bible out there, with some adding the provisos that it's perfect, and it's not just a TRANSLATION of the word of God, but IS the word of God.

(This is wrong of course. There are quite a few perfectly-valid English Bible translations available, the KJV is NOT perfect, and it's only a TRANSLATION of the word of God, which He gave in Hebrew, Aramaic, & Koine greek.)

And if you look thru the archives of the "translations" sub-forum, you'll see many threads parroting the garbage of Ruckman, Riplinger, & several other KJVO authors trying to milk the KJVO cash cow.

And I can truthfully tell you I HAVE heard Bro. Fugate toss in some KJVO hooey into some of his sermons. Since you know him, just ASK him about it, and ask him if he's KJVO or not.

But back to the matter of AUTHORITY. Since the HOLY SPIRIT translated Peter's preaching at the "first pentecost, HE provided the authority for translating God's word. OTOH, the KJVO myth was invented outta thin air by MEN.

And the KJV IS a "Model T" Bible version. Just as the Model T is still a valid "car" under the definition for a car, the KJV is still a valid Bible version. But the Model T was made for the roads of 1909, which were mostly wagon and horse trails. It proved quite-uncomfortable for paved roads at higher speeds. Thus, it was replaced by the Model A & other cars designed for modern roads. thus, God has caused newer English Bible translations to be made to reflect the changes in English HE has caused/allowed.

As for the textual issues, none of us were present when any of the ancient mss. were made; we don't know who made them when or where, or what their sources were. Therefore, we have no right to declare this ms. right & that ms. wrong. It's guesswork at best. So, let's simply accept what GOD chose to preserve for us, and believe His written word.

(Remember, there's quite a difference in Isaiah 42:7 & 61:1-3 as found in the Masoretic Text & what JESUS READ ALOUD in Luke 4:16-21 & called "this Scripture"!)

But YES, there's plainly authority in Scripture for English Bible translations to be made!

 

But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

Write it down in my language and let's cut out the middle man.

 

By whose AUTHORITY Brother Robert?... By GODS AUTHORITY!

Tyndale "was strangled to death while tied at the stake, and then his dead body was burned". His final words, spoken "at the stake with a fervent zeal, and a loud voice", were reported as "Lord! Open the King of England's eyes."

To those of us who know our KJV, the history of it and how it got to us, how about the answered prayer of a Martyr's Blood!... We would not have any translation in English unless the KJV paved the way... Like Salty said The Original!... I don't care what translations you other brethren read but if it is in English the KJV laid the groundwork for the English speaking world... You want the original language?... I believe TC and JOJ have classes in Greek and Hebrew but the Lord knew that's not my native language or yours either... Another tidbit you all might be interested in, before the English version came into being the first Bible printed was the Gutenburg Bible printed in German... By whose authority?... Brother Glen

 

Can you understand and explain how the KJVO arrived at this conclusion? Your stating of the KJVO position is cursory at best; it goes way deeper than what you've offered.

I believe men on both sides of the issue would find strong disagreement with you on this point.

Which of these passages are not inspired - the original Hebrew or Jesus' translation into Greek?

 

Jesus commissioned that authority to His Apostles, to record down to us the very word of God, and unless we all around the world have to know Greek/Hebrew, God meant it to get translated and passed around!

 

The KJVO has generally read & believed some junk from some KJVO author who's seeking to make $$$, the TRUTH be dipped.

Let'em. they must ^^PROVE^^ their case.

Jesus saw fit to preserve BOTH versions. That PROVES He's more-interested in MEANING than exact words, when other words carry the same message. And we don't know WHAT language Jesus was reading aloud from, altho He most likely SPOKE in Greek as He read. He was reading from a vorlage copy in a synagogue, so it could well have been in Hebrew.

 

By the authority that God gave to Adam to have dominion over all the Earth.

Man is not passive but a vital actor in God's work of redemption. Biblical translation is simply one way in which men fulfill God's command.

 

KJVO position is that the Lord preserved unto us a single Greek text, the TR itself, and that he inspired the KJV, as the translators were inspired to do their work, and since based upon the right and only source text, their work was perfect and inspired by God also!

 

True, but that issue always seems to get bled over into the KJVO crowd using it to proof text their erroneous beliefs regarding English translations and authority!
And Peter Rickman pretty much summed up the KJVO position, didn't he? Along with Gipp?

 

I do not know though ANY KJVO person who would not agree that both the TR and Kjv were inspired by God, that the 1611 were especially gifted by God, and that the KJV is the perfect English translation, no errors/mistakes within it.

 

No,I just found it hard to accept that there are differences among KJVO, as all believe the same things regarding the Kjv.
And back to the OP, I would see the authority deriving from Jesus granting that to the original books of the Bible, and the need to have all people able to hear and read in their own native tongues.

 

Jesus always spoke as if assuming the OT scriptures were from God and inspired authoritatively, and he was assuring that his Apostles would have that same divine inspiration and authority as the OT already had.