Divorce and Remarriage

[1689Dave]

Does the “except clause” in Matthew 19:9 allow remarriage after divorce based on adultery?

“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” (Matthew 19:9) (KJV 1900)

On the surface it appears Jesus approves of remarriage if we divorce our spouse on grounds of adultery. But how can this be? The innocent wife, divorced from an adulterous husband, commits adultery when she remarries. And the man she marries also commits adultery.

 

[HankD]

Does the “except clause” in Matthew 19:9 allow remarriage after divorce based on adultery?

“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” (Matthew 19:9) (KJV 1900)

On the surface it appears Jesus approves of remarriage if we divorce our spouse on grounds of adultery. But how can this be? The innocent wife, divorced from an adulterous husband, commits adultery when she remarries. And the man she marries also commits adultery.

It would SEEM that the innocent party is free to remarry but cannot marry a divorced person who has been "put away".

I believe the phrase "put away" points to the offender not the offendee.

there is no such thing as 'no-fault" divorce.

Some debate forgiveness as a legitimate reason for "remarriage" after "no-fault" divorce.

Not sure about that.

 

[1689Dave]

It would SEEM that the innocent party is free to remarry but cannot marry a divorced person who has been "put away".

I believe the phrase "put away" points to the offender not the offendee.

there is no such thing as 'no-fault" divorce.

Some debate forgiveness as a legitimate reason for "remarriage" after "no-fault" divorce.

Not sure about that.

Thanks, interesting. I think the fact that the innocent divorcee and he 2nd husband commit adultery makes it impossible not to have an adulterous marriage under those conditions. If played out as Jesus says, 4 people commit adultery. 1) the adulterous husband. 2) the woman he marries. 3) the innocent divorced wife when she remarries. And 4), the innocent man she marries.

 

[TCassidy]

I don't really see why we are discussing this. It is clear that Jesus said "I tell you that whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and he who marries her when she is divorced commits adultery.”

A man divorces his wife for some reason OTHER THAN adultery, and marries another woman commits adultery. And the man who marries the woman commits adultery.

Now let's look at the other side. The man who divorces his wife FOR ADULTERY is free to marry another.

Remember that linage and tribal membership were very important to the Jews, especially those of the Tribe of Levi and the descendants of Aaron. The Levitical Priesthood was limited only to descendants of Levi through Aaron. When a priest's wife was unfaithful to him, and she became pregnant, the priestly line would be ADULTERATED, and thus the term ADULTERY.

Verse 9, the verse in question, makes it perfectly clear that adultery only happens if the divorce was for a reason OTHER THAN adultery. When adultery was the reason the non-adulterous party was free to remarry.

 

[TCassidy]

I think the fact that the innocent divorcee and he 2nd husband commit adultery makes it impossible not to have an adulterous marriage under those conditions.

Except they don't. Read it again.

 

[1689Dave]

Except they don't. Read it again.

Jesus says the innocently divorced wife commits adultery along with the husband she marries. It takes two to commit adultery, you cannot do it on your own.

“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” (Matthew 19:9) (KJV 1900)

 

[1689Dave]

I don't really see why we are discussing this. It is clear that Jesus said "I tell you that whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and he who marries her when she is divorced commits adultery.”

A man divorces his wife for some reason OTHER THAN adultery, and marries another woman commits adultery. And the man who marries the woman commits adultery.

Now let's look at the other side. The man who divorces his wife FOR ADULTERY is free to marry another.

Remember that linage and tribal membership were very important to the Jews, especially those of the Tribe of Levi and the descendants of Aaron. The Levitical Priesthood was limited only to descendants of Levi through Aaron. When a priest's wife was unfaithful to him, and she became pregnant, the priestly line would be ADULTERATED, and thus the term ADULTERY.

Verse 9, the verse in question, makes it perfectly clear that adultery only happens if the divorce was for a reason OTHER THAN adultery. When adultery was the reason the non-adulterous party was free to remarry.

Adulterers do not go to heaven. Only death dissolves the marriage bond. It's a big deal....

 

[HankD]

Again the one who is "put away" is the guilty party.

A divorced individual who is the innocent party does appear to be free to remarry another innocent person.

 

[HankD]

Adulterers do not go to heaven. Only death dissolves the marriage bond. It's a big deal....

Is king David in hell?

 

[1689Dave]

Again the one who is "put away" is the guilty party.

A divorced individual who is the innocent party does appear to be free to remarry another innocent person.

Why does Jesus say the innocent person, the innocently divorced person marries - commits adultery too?

 

[1689Dave]

Is king David in hell?

Polygamy is not divorce and remarriage.

 

[HankD]

Polygamy is not divorce and remarriage.

Wrong - David committed adultery with Bathsheba while Uriah was still alive and then committed premeditated murder as well to cover up his sin.

 

[HankD]

Why does Jesus say the innocent person, the innocently divorced person marries - commits adultery too?

Only if that person marries some one who has been "put away" (the guilty party).

 

[1689Dave]

Wrong - David committed adultery with Bathsheba while Uriah was still alive and then committed premeditated murder as well to cover up his sin.

But death broke the marriage bond. And God forgave David for murdering Uriah.

 

[TCassidy]

Why does Jesus say the innocent person, the innocently divorced person marries - commits adultery too?

He didn't. Read it again.

 

[1689Dave]

He didn't. Read it again.

"and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” (Matthew 19:9) (KJV 1900)

 

[TCassidy]

Adulterers do not go to heaven.

Abraham is in hell? Isaac is in hell? Jacob is in hell? David is in hell? Wow!

In fact just about every man who has ever lived is in hell or is on his way to hell? Matt 5:28 but I tell you that everyone who gazes at a woman to lust after her has committed adultery with her already in his heart.

Only death dissolves the marriage bond.

So Jesus lied?

 

[TCassidy]

Jesus says the innocently divorced wife commits adultery along with the husband she marries.

Yes, because the divorce was invalid, she is still married.

It takes two to commit adultery, you cannot do it on your own.

Obviously.

Why does Jesus say the innocent person, the innocently divorced person marries - commits adultery too?

Because the divorce was invalid and she is still married.

Polygamy is not divorce and remarriage.

But it is adultery, which is the subject we are talking about. Please try to stay on topic.

 

[1689Dave]

Yes, because the divorce was invalid, she is still married.

Obviously.

Because the divorce was invalid and she is still married.

But it is adultery, which is the subject we are talking about. Please try to stay on topic.

The topic is Divorce & remarriage = adultery in every situation.

 

[HankD]

But death broke the marriage bond. And God forgave David for murdering Uriah.

As you said It was after he had Uriah killed.

We do not know what the outcome would have been had Uriah not been murdered. IOW Bathsheba would have been pregnant with David's child while Uriah was still alive. Uriah could (if he could prove it) according to the law of Moses had both David and Bathsheba put to death.

Again this is speculation. In any event Uriah was dead (howbeit at David's hand) Bathsheba could then remarry according to the Law of Moses.

If you read on, the child died, the sword NEVER left David's house and he suffered the consequence of his sin until he left planet earth.