Why has the KJV been so popular?

Amen! Thank God for feet and inches!

 

I think mainly because it was the most readily available translation until very recently. Its what everyone grew up using.

 

Yeah, wasn't that nice of him? In a whole bunch of languages, too.

 

"In the 1580s, King James openly kissed Francis Stewart Hepburn, Earl of Bothwell. Contemporary sources clearly hinted their relationship was a sexual one. When James inherited the English throne from Queen Elizabeth I in 1603, it was openly joked of the new English monarch in London that “Elizabeth was King: now James is Queen!” If there is still any doubt, it should be noted that George Villiers, also held an intimate relationship with King James, about which King James himself was quite open. King James called Villiers his “wife” and called himself Villiers' “husband”! King James died in 1625 of gout and senility. He is buried in the Henry VII chapel in Westminster Abbey, with one of his favorite male suitors on his right, and another on his left." King James I

From the same site:
"Monarchy is the greatest thing on earth. Kings are rightly called gods since just like God they have power of life and death over all their subjects in all things. They are accountable to God only ... so it is a crime for anyone to argue about what a king can do."

This jerk should have his name on a Bible?

 

The providance of God works in mysterious ways, eh?

 

Even if James was a flaming Gay man, the Lord still used him to get the Kjv made!

 

The KJV is the most beautiful translation.

 

Yes, but why only the KJV for some 400 years?

 

"King James called Villiers his “wife” and called himself Villiers' “husband!”

I don't think that makes every man in Britain 'gay.' Do you?

 

Idiot question. There were many translations in many languages before and after that one.

 

If The KJV was so good and King James was so good, why would the Puritans and Pilgrims leave.? Why would Roger Williams condemn the Anglican church in 1632?

 

they liked the Geneva Bible better.

 

they who?

 

No part. What part of "King James called Villiers his 'wife' and called himself Villiers' 'husband!' do you not understand?

 

That's why I was asking you.

 

If you believed in God's providence you would see a connection between the readily available KJV over a 400 yr time frame, and the not so readily manuscripts until recently.