Featured Enigmas and inconsistencies

Matthew 12:24 But when the Pharisees heard it, they said, This fellow doth not cast out devils, but by Beelzebub the prince of the devils.

The Pharisees called the work of the Holy Spirit demonic, here Peter is simply complaining as we all do on occasion.

 

No. Complaining is not blasphemy against the Holy Spirit.

 

The core of their blasphemy is not simply a complaint, the pharisees were saying the miracles of Jesus were demonic in nature.

Peter was complaining but not telling Jesus what He was saying was demonic.

 

OK then what is your point? Is God evil?

 

Since you are splitting hairs here, Peter responded to the voice in the vision by saying, “Lord.” When the Spirit spoke to him afterward, while contemplating the vision, he obeyed. In the Pharisee passage, Jesus clearly said speaking against the Son of Man could be forgiven, but not speaking against the Holy Ghost.

Another point: the Pharisees were not saying the miracles weren’t miracles, but that they were of Satan. Peter did not say the voice or command in the vision was of Satan, only that it did not seem to jibe with what God had already said.

But, in general, you seem to be trying to build a second case without having clearly established the first. It is obvious that nowhere is Peter ever considered in danger of being in an eternally unforgiven state. This would indicate that Jesus, in Matthew 12, was not talking about such a circumstance as in Acts 10.

 

Jonah did what he was told, eventually. God "changed His mind". It is clear from the text that Jonah feared God would forgive them if they repented, which He did, not that God might make him to be a false prophet.

Many of God's prophecies had conditional elements, i.e."such and such destruction will come upon you unless you repent..." and so forth. We don't know everything Jonah said. He doesn't appear to put forth a lot of effort. The people responded by believing the prophecy and hoping widespread repentance would appease God's anger. So, the people saw Jonah as a true prophet of God.

Context, also, is that there were many court "prophets" that would advise the king. Isaiah and Jeremiah both faced these competing prophecies. I think that is what is being referenced in Deut 18.

 

I don't know. God knows and He will handle them.

To accuse without evidence is to break the ninth commandment.

If we step out of the boundaries of grace we bring ourselves into the realm of Law.

We are often accused of sins by non-witnesses on the testimony of one person, this is also to bear false witness.

To lie in the venue of the church and church matters may not be blasphemy against the Holy Spirit (though it might) but remember Ananias and Sapphira and their chastisement.

The sin unto death in 1 John?
It would seem then however this sentence is probably not given in every case out of God's mercy.

 

The word in v. 31 is the noun blasfemia, (thus, "blasphemy" in English) which means an insult. The phrase in v. 32 is translated correctly with the preposition "against" from the Greek prepositional phrase beginning with the preposition kata.

It seems clear in my mind, if not yours, that Christ is using Hebrew parallelism to make the point. Therefore, the "blasphemy" in v. 31 and "speaking against" carry the same meaning in the passage. However, Peter did not "insult" the Holy Spirit, but made a logical (in his mind) objection based on OT Scripture. He did not commit the blasphemy against the Holy Spirit.

So, a simple look at the original Greek (remembering the Hebrew idiom) easily solves your problem. Others have easily answered your Jonah conundrum, so I won't bother.

 

Do you know what Hebrew parallelism is? If you don't, you have no idea what I was saying.

I don't know what you are talking about here. Why would you post something not your view, and then expect us to know that?

 

So you don't know what Hebrew parallelism is. That being true, you cannot properly exegete the passage.

No, I didn't. I still don't know what you mean. You were not clear.

 

If you can explain Hebrew parallelism and how it helps explain this issue, I would like to hear it.

 

You find the same thing in Mary's Song in Luke 1:46-47, which is one reason for being sure that Mary composed it (she being a Jew and all) rather than Luke, a Greek.

"My soul magnifies the Lord,
And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Saviour."