So what other assertion have you made that have been ignored, if it's no too much trouble?
Here is another example.
The title pages of D. A. Waite's
The Defined King James Bible claim that it has "the Cambridge 1769 Text" "unaltered," but that would not be factually true. The word “unaltered” would seem to be a broad-sweeping claim that not even one letter or one word of the “Cambridge 1769 Text” was altered in Waite’s edition.
D. A. Waite wrote: “The Cambridge 1769 is a good standard to be used, as we do in our
Defined King James Bible” (
Critical Answer to James Price’s King James Onlyism, p. 130).
According to my examination of over 400 editions of the KJV including a KJV edition printed by Cambridge in 1769, there would be well over 400 alterations or differences between an actual edition printed at Cambridge in 1769 and the edition in Waite’s
Defined KJB. I mailed Waite a copy of my book with facts from KJV editions.
The KJV edition in Waite’s
Defined KJB would actually be based more on the 1769 Oxford than on a 1769 Cambridge since the 1769 Cambridge did not have all the changes introduced in the 1769 Oxford that are followed or found in Waite’s edition. The text of the KJV edition printed at Cambridge in 1769 still has the three so-called Oxford errors (2 Chron. 33:19, Jer. 34:16, Nahum 3:16). A KJV edition printed by Cambridge in 1769 kept or followed several of the renderings which characterized the 1743 or 1762 Cambridge KJV editions and which are not found in most present KJV editions including Waite's edition.
Perhaps D. A. Waite has never actually seen and examined an edition of the KJV that was printed at Cambridge in 1769, and assumed something that is not true.
The title page of several editions of the DKJB could be properly asserted to have misinformed its readers.