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The 1 Day and the 1000 Years

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by John of Japan, Feb 28, 2019.

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  1. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Okay, just to be sure, in your view human time is literal and God was referring to a literal day and a literal 1000 years in 2 Peter, correct?
     
  2. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Okay, both passages are referring to numbers of one kind or another. But the exegesis of the two passages would be completely different, right?

    Are you making the point that 666 is symbolic, so the day and 1000 years in 2 Peter are symbolic? However, in Rev. the meaning of the metaphor is clearly given ("the number of a man") but there is no such explanation in 2 Peter.
     
  3. Lodic

    Lodic Well-Known Member

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    To quote the famous line from "Cool Hand Luke", "what we have here is a failure to communicate". Our chocolate bar is a definite known quantity. I thought one of the main points of this OP is whether or know we can know the amount of time in question. I meant to say that we do not know how much time.

    I didn't realize I was ignoring the day. After all, it takes days to make up years, and a literal 1,000 years is 365,000 days (give or take a few days for leap years). To use a different illustration, all the water in the Pacific Ocean is a drop in God's bucket. It's just a comparative illustration for perspective.

    Why is it so important to identify what type of speech the "1,000" is? It's either literal or symbolic, right? Whether the 1,000 years is literal or symbolic makes no difference, since it's all in God's timetable.
     
  4. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    Peter was referring to these literal periods to show time is no consequence to God keeping His promises
     
  5. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Sorry, none of this answers the OP. Are the day and the 1000 years in 2 Peter literal, or are they figures of speech? If they are figures of speech, what figure are they?

    A "day" and "1000 years" are not indefinite. They are normally very literal. If I say, "I'll give you a day to pay that debt," am I being indefinite? No.
     
  6. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    But the word "indefinite" is used exactly the same in my chocolate illustration as you are using it in regards to the "1000 years," which you said was indefinite.

    Well, yes, but how can you compare two things figuratively? You have made the 1000 years out to be figurative, "an indefinite period of time." So what is the "day"? Is it also indefinite? How so?


    Well of course it makes a difference! Whether something is literal or symbolic always makes a difference. If I point my finger at you and say, "Bang," it is symbolic, and you are still standing. However, if I point a loaded Glock 9mm pistol at your head, take the safety off, and pull the trigger, you are dead!!

    I'd say that the difference there between symbolic and literal is absolutely huge. Yet will you tell me that the difference in literal and symbolic in God's holy and precious Bible is not important?
     
  7. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Correct.
     
  8. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    This is why it gets tiresome debating you, John. Do you see what you are doing here? You are offering only two doors: "My view" or open theism. As if the topic you brought does not admit of other possibilities.

    Aside from being simplistic your last sentence is preemptively demeaning to any ad all opposition. Does not make for good cordial discussion.
     
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  9. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Yeah, and this is why it gets tiresome debating you. You consistently misrepresent me.
    Feeling superior much? (I'm simplistic and demeaning? Really?)
     
  10. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    ... like Paul:

    "Now this may be interpreted allegorically: these women are two covenants." Gal. 4:24

    ... like Jesus:

    “Beware of the leaven of the Pharisees, which is hypocrisy." Luke 12:1
     
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  11. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    No, I am not at all feeling superior. In this hotel room I have a mirror. And a wife. And you have the nerve to talk bout misrepresenting? Implying that those who have my view have a foot or two in open theism.

    You are posting in a discussion forum, but you are acting like you are lecturing underlings in your class.
     
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  12. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    You totally miss the point of the OP. In both of these illustrations you give, the metaphor is explained right in the text. However, in 2 Peter 3:8, no such meaning is given. If you say that the day and the 1000 years are metaphors, what is the metaphor pointing to?
     
  13. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Yes unless one does violence to the scripture.

    The 2 Peter passage is self explanatory.

    The point of the 2 Peter passage is that the length of time of the delay (slack-braduno) of His return loses importance because
    8 ,,, one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.

    So Instead of Einsteinian Relativity we have Godly relativity of which "some men" see His "slackness" as an unacceptable delay.

    But on the contrary as well as being relative the delay has the following reason:

    9 ... is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
     
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  14. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    "Simplistic" and "demeaning" certainly sound like you feel yourself to be superior.

    Irrelevant. I have a mirror and a wife, too. So?

    That is not what I did and not what I meant. Stop misrepresenting me.
    You, too, are posting in an open forum, and appear to want to attack me personally rather than answering the OP.

    So, if you actually are here to answer the OP, are "a day" and "a thousand years" literal in meaning or not?
     
  15. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    So are the day and the 1000 years literal in meaning or are they figures of speech? I can't tell from this post.

    If they are not literal in meaning, I fail to see how your point about the thrust of the passage (which is correct) can be made.
     
  16. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Wow, this is great. Not a single one of my opponents on this thread has answered the OP. None of them have been able to tell if the day and the 1000 years are figurative what they are referring to. In particular, the one day remains without an explanation. If the 1000 years is a figure of speech, not a literal 1000 years, then what in the world is the day?

    Now here is why asterisktom has attacked me personally in such a nasty way. If he (or any other full preterist, or any amil or postmil dudes) admits that the 1000 years in Peter is literal, then they immediately have a problem with saying that the 1000 years in Rev. 20 is not literal. :Biggrin
     
  17. Covenanter

    Covenanter Well-Known Member
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    I'll repost my answer as a quote - it is not possible, nor useful, to answer those questions without considering the CONTEXT. Peter is dealing with the real situation that existed before the destruction. Paul dealt with a related situation in 1 Thes. 4 concerning believers who had died.

    Peter is NOT using figures of speech regarding time; he is emphasising both God's gracious patience & the certainty of Christ's coming in judgment, both for the destruction & for final resurrection & judgment & to establish the NH&NE.

     
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  18. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    This is an artificial man-made rule of convenience for literalists to say that metaphors have to be explained or otherwise they must be literally understood. Some are explained and some aren't. Shall we discuss some metaphors, especially in the OT, that are not "explained right in the text"?

    Your passage says nothing about God being outside of time. Whither He is or isn't is not the issue. The idea is that God is faithful in whatever He promises or threatens - whether the the thing promised happens in a day or a thousand years. That is, after all, what the naysayers were basically saying, "Look. All these years and nothing has happened that was prophesied." But Peter in effect tells them that time is not at all a factor in His fulfilling His promises. It will happen in His good time.

    And, John, if you sincerely want discussion don't start with being demeaning to your opposition.
     
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  19. Lodic

    Lodic Well-Known Member

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    Before I forget, I think "1,000 is a simile. There was a party scene in "A Christmas Carol" where everyone was playing a game called "Similies". In the game, they would compare things - e.g. "as tall as...", and the answer would be "a mountain". Since we have the phrase "a day is like", and a day is different from a century or a millennium, this makes sense to me.

    I am not saying that it's not important to know the difference between literal vs symbolic passages in Scripture. At the Last Supper, Jesus said the bread and the wine were His body and blood. Catholics take that literally, where most Protestants take it symbolically. What I am saying is that it doesn't make any real difference whether we understand the millennium to be literal or figurative. Either way, it's a very long time. If you point your finger at me and say "bang", I laugh; but I'll take a different action if you point that Glock at me. However, there is nothing I do differently whether the millennium is literal or symbolic. For that matter, there is nothing I do differently now as a Preterist vs when I held to a Futurist view.
     
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  20. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Okay. But you still have not answered the OP.
     
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