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Featured Not only is Jesus God but God is Jesus

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by loDebar, Jun 7, 2019.

  1. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    He was God incarnate, John 1

    No prior to being flesh, He was GOD, and With God, unity yet separable... not a lessor God or

    a human cannot get to God without going thought Christ
    The Holy Spirit only leads us to only Jesus, never straight to God
     
    #21 loDebar, Jun 10, 2019
    Last edited: Jun 10, 2019
  2. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    This is Aramaic John 1 1-2

    In the origin The Word had been existing and That Word had been existing with God and That Word was himself God. 2This One himself was at the origin with God
     
  3. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    One spirit, one God

    Jesus said the Father will send Spirit and Jesus said " I will send the Spirit"

    Unity yet separable
     
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  4. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    Back to the verse,

    notice , the House of David is the Jews of Jerusalem
    but the inhabitants are separate the Romans or others
    THEY Both? shall look upon me whom they have pierced

    quoted in John 19:37
    Jhn 19:37
    And again another scripture saith, They shall look on him whom they pierced.

    notice the difference the speaker in Zech is God, the speaker in John 19 is John

    A humorous part is in Zech 13

    Zec 13:4


    And it shall come to pass in that day, that the prophets shall be ashamed every one of his vision, when he hath prophesied; neither shall they wear a rough garment to deceive:
    Zec 13:5

    But he shall say, I am no prophet, I am an husbandman; for man taught me to keep cattle from my youth.
    Zec 13:6

    And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands? Then he shall answer, Those with which I was wounded in the house of my friends.

    These are the one that taught against Jesus as Messiah, They hide the fact they used to be Priests but claim to be farmers,
    Their hands show certain marks or stains common to Priests and they say they got the marks from their friends house

    Can anyone elaborate on their hands? Did they have blood stains? Wounds from killing the sacrifices or slips?
     
  5. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    John 1:14. And He Himself was the cause, John 1:3.

    Without question, John 1:1.
    Only in Him actually being God which He always was. But "with God" is in fact to be someone other than God too. He was both prior to His incarnation. John 1:1-2.






    OK.
     
  6. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    He always was the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. YHWH.
     
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  7. GoodTidings

    GoodTidings Well-Known Member

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    Yes, that is true. :)
     
  8. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    This is pretty darn close to Nestorianism, a Christological heresy.

    The Archangel
     
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  9. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    The original document would have been Greek, not Aramaic.

    The Archangel
     
  10. Acts2.21

    Acts2.21 Member

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    The Holy Bible teaches that God is TriPersonal, that is Father, Son and Holy Spirit. There is nothing special about the "order" that they are mentioned in theology, as the Three are 100% coequal, coessential and coeternal, neither Person is more important than the other. The Hebrew word for "God" is "'ĕlôhı̂ym", which is masculine in gender, and plural in number. Like when we read in Genesis 1:26, where "'ĕlôhı̂ym" is Speaking, "Let US make man in OUR image". Hence, in passages like Ecclesiastes 12:1, we have the use of "Maker", which is in the Hebrew, "bârâ'", which here is also masculine, plural, literally, "Makers", as the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, were actively involved in the Creation of the entire Universe.

    In Isaiah 48:16, we have one of the clearest teachings in the Old Testament on the Holy Trinity.

    "“Come near to Me, hear this: I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; From the time that it was, I was there. And now the Lord God has sent Me and His Spirit.”

    The Speaker here is "Yahweh", where in verse 12 He says, "I am the First and the Last". And in the following verse, "My hand has laid the foundation of the earth, And My right hand has stretched out the heavens; When I call to them, They stand up together.", which can not be used for any created human, as some argue to be the speaker here. This same Speaker, Yahweh, says in verse 16, that "Yahweh Elohim" has sent Him, and the Holy Spirit. It is very clear from the New Testament, especially in John's Gospel, that both Jesus Christ, and the Holy Spirit, were "sent" by the Father. See chapters 14-16. The fact that the Speaker, Who is "Yahweh", speaks of another Person Who is also "Yahweh", and the Holy Spirit, Who also must be "Yahweh", as yet another Person, clearly shows that these Three "Persons" are "distinct" from One another (though not "separate"), though they are equally Almighty God. Here we have a very clear reference to the Holy Trinity. GOD: FATHER, SON AND HOLY SPIRIT.
     
  11. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    How can you be sure which language John normally spoke?..
    It was not English anyway
    I was showing the statement the "Word was God " differently
     
  12. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    elohyim is not just for God, elohyim elohyim is God There are other elohyim than God
     
  13. Acts2.21

    Acts2.21 Member

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    Hi, I am not sure what you are trying to say here? The very first verse of the Holy Bible says, "In the beginning "'ĕlôhı̂ym"...", which is used for the One True God of the Bible. I am well aware that, " 'âdôn", it is also used for other than the God of the Holy Bible. This in no way detracts from the fact of its use for the One True God of the Bible, which is done so in a unique sense.

    Exactly what is your post here trying to achieve? Are you arguing that there are others "gods" that are equal to the God of the Holy Bible?
     
  14. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    You must be joking! You quoted the text of John 1, saying it was Aramaic. The text of the New Testament was written in Greek, regardless of what language any of the Apostles spoke.

    The Archangel


    Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk
     
  15. Acts2.21

    Acts2.21 Member

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    The New Testament was originally written in Greek, though Jesus Himself could have spoken Aramaic. The oldest available manuscripts for the New Testament, like the Papyrus Bodmer, which dates from around A.D. 200, or earlier, is in the Greek language.

    John 1:1 as written in the Greek, reads, "Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.", Literally translated into English. "in beginning was the Logos, and the Logos was with God, and God was the Word".

    The Greek grammar is very important and precise here. in the phrase, "καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν", we read of "the Logos" who was "πρὸς τὸν θεόν". The Greek preposition, "πρὸς", used here, is literally, "at the side of, near, in the presence of", etc. which shows that "The Logos", and "The God", are Two distinct Persons. This is further seen from the use of the Greek definite article, "ὁ" and "τὸν", which is used with each noun, thereby showing that Two SEPARATE Persons are meant, and not one and the same person.

    Jesus' Words in John 10:30 also show this, " ἐγὼ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἕν ἐσμεν", "I and the Father one We are". Here we have the use of the neuter singular, "ἕν", literally "one thing", and the plural masculine, "ἐσμεν", "We are", as in Two Persons. The grammar clearly shows that Jesus and His Father are not one and the same Person, but Two Who are separate, though their "essential unity" is one. If Jesus had used "εἷς", instead of "ἕν", then He would have meant that He and His Father were one and the same Person! However, He does not do so.
     
  16. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    nope,your use of elohyim. gods Little "g" There are many It is resident of Heaven, there are many but the is only one capital "G" Elohyom Elohyim or THE resident or King of Heaven
     
  17. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    The problem is not Greek but how Greek became English He does say so,
    Jhn 10:30

    I and my Father are one.

    ἐγὼ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἕν ἐσμεν

    or if He was not GOD, you are not saved
     
  18. Acts2.21

    Acts2.21 Member

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    I really don't know what exactly you are trying to argue here? Are you suggesting that the God of the Bible is Unitarian? That there is only a single Person Who manifests Himself, as Father, and then Son and then Holy Spirit? Like one actor playing there different roles? Do you not accept that the Bible teaches, that there is One Divine Being, as Paul says in Romans 1:10, "θειότης", which is used of the "divine nature". But that there are Three equal Persons, Who are "distinct" from each other, yet not "separate". The Bible clearly teaches that God is TriPersonal
     
  19. Acts2.21

    Acts2.21 Member

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    There is no "my" in the Greek text. Hence it is written in italics!

    Jesus Christ is Almighty God
    The Father is Almighty God
    The Holy Spirit is Almighty God

    Three Persons, Who are NOT the same, though their "essential unity" is ONE.
     
  20. Acts2.21

    Acts2.21 Member

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    "And Jesus came and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptise them into the Name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit".(Matthew 28:19)

    In this one verse, we have the Three Persons of the Holy Trinity. The Speaker here is the Lord Jesus Christ, Who is giving instructions to the Disciples on the baptism of new believers, after they have been saved. He says that this baptism is to be administered in the “Name”, “of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit”.

    It should be noted, that Jesus does not say, in “ta onomata”, in the Greek, which is the plural, “Names”. But, clearly uses the singular, “to onoma”, THE NAME. It might be reasonably asked, that, as there are Three Persons mentioned in this verse, why would Jesus use the singular, “Name”, and not the plural, “Names”? This singular “Name” is common with the Three Persons, the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. They share this equally.

    When Moses witnessed the spectacular event of the “Burning Bush”, which was not consumed, in Exodus chapter 3, the Lord God spoke to him from the bush, are told him that he had been chosen to deliver God’s people, the children of Israel, from Egypt. Moses asks the Lord, that if he were asked for the identity of this God, what Name should he give them. To which the Lord God Almighty answered, "Ehyeh ’ăsher ’ehyeh", which is best rendered in our English as, “I am Who I am”(verse 14), which means, “Eternal, Self-existing, All-powerful, Creator God”. In fact, the Greek version of the Hebrew Old Testament, which was produced some 150 years before the Birth of Jesus Christ, by the best Hebrew scholars of the day, render the Hebrew text as, “"ego eimi ho on", which is, “I am the Eternal One”. Say to those who ask of you, that “I AM” (’ehyeh), has sent me to you. “The Lord (Yahweh), the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever” (verse 15). The Hebrew Name of God, “Yahweh”, has its root in the verb, “’ehyeh”, speaking of the “eternal, self-existence” of the God of the Holy Bible, Who is Unique, as He has no equal.

    The main Name of the Triune God of the Holy Bible, is “Yahweh”, or, as some use the corrupted form, “Jehovah”. It is this NAME, that Jesus Christ refers to in Matthew 28:19, which is used equally for the Three Persons.

    It should also be noted, that, even though Jesus says "Name", (singular), the Greek text that follows is also very important: "tou Patros kai tou Huiou kai tou Hagiou Pneumatos", where the Greek "article" (tou), is repeated, to show that a "distinction" of Persons is meant. (Dr Samuel Green; Handbook to the Grammar of the Greek Testament, pages, 198-199)
     
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