Luke 23:43 NLT
[43] And Jesus replied, "I assure you, today you will be with me in paradise."
I was introduced to this possibility last week by a family member.
This is a different translation problem than most of you are use to. This is not about advanced Greek grammar or the arguing over which word to use or what a word actually means. For this translation, one really has to ask what was intended.
Personally, I would like it to be “before” because it feels nicer to jump straight to Heaven. However, when looking at this from the viewpoint of the context of the rest of the Bible and the Resurrection, I would have to say that “after” is most likely correct.
So state your cases and ponderings. I’m interested in others opinions on this except for the following:
1. KJVO - I realize that if one believes KJVO then one can say the KJVO says “before” and that is that. But if I don’t believe in KJVO, then you’re just talking past me and not to me.
2. Arguments from your vast knowledge of Greek concerning this passage. Arguments from the grammar rarely work. You will not convince me one way or the other using this method.
3. Any arguments from tradition from the birth of Augustine forward. Arguments from tradition won’t really convince me but may support a biblical position.
Now, nothing is stopping you from using these arguments and they may confirm what someone already believes, but I doubt it will change their minds. I ask that people don’t hijack the thread.
[43] And Jesus replied, "I assure you, today you will be with me in paradise."
I was introduced to this possibility last week by a family member.
This is a different translation problem than most of you are use to. This is not about advanced Greek grammar or the arguing over which word to use or what a word actually means. For this translation, one really has to ask what was intended.
Personally, I would like it to be “before” because it feels nicer to jump straight to Heaven. However, when looking at this from the viewpoint of the context of the rest of the Bible and the Resurrection, I would have to say that “after” is most likely correct.
So state your cases and ponderings. I’m interested in others opinions on this except for the following:
1. KJVO - I realize that if one believes KJVO then one can say the KJVO says “before” and that is that. But if I don’t believe in KJVO, then you’re just talking past me and not to me.
2. Arguments from your vast knowledge of Greek concerning this passage. Arguments from the grammar rarely work. You will not convince me one way or the other using this method.
3. Any arguments from tradition from the birth of Augustine forward. Arguments from tradition won’t really convince me but may support a biblical position.
Now, nothing is stopping you from using these arguments and they may confirm what someone already believes, but I doubt it will change their minds. I ask that people don’t hijack the thread.