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An interpretation of "this generation shall not pass"

Van

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To what does "this generation" refer?
1) OP answer, to the generation that has seen these things, still in the future.
2) To the existing generation at the time of Jesus saying it.
3) To mankind, this generation referring to our corrupt nature.

Why not #1? Fig tree sprouts have been heralding summer since the creation of fig trees. Matthew 24:8 supports the view it is an early indicator, rather than an end times indicator.

Why not #2? The generation of that heard Jesus speak, died within 100 years or so, yet all these things have not occurred such as the second coming of Christ.

The NASB footnote provides an alternate translation choice for "this generation" as "this race."
 

37818

Well-Known Member
The NASB footnote provides an alternate translation choice for "this generation" as "this race."
The text explicity says of that generation "ye, when ye shall see all these things," speaking of "those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven . . . ." Now the "ye" is plural and can speak of others beyond those whom Jesus spoke. Since Jesus had not returned in their life time the "ye" indeed refers to those who see those things in a yet future time.
 

robycop3

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Very-obviously, the prophesied eschatological events didn't happen then, so it could not have been referring to that generation.
 

Calminian

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View attachment 3436
Believers and unbelievers alike have doubted this prophecy of Christ, and yet that very doubt is a testimony to Christ’s prophetic power for he assures the hearer, in very expectation of the doubt and scorn to come, that his words would indeed be fulfilled and in the time whereof he spake, by doubling down on it: Mat 24:35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.

Before declaring that This generation shall not pass away, till all be fulfilled (Luk 21:32), the Lord first said: And he spake to them a parable; Behold the fig tree, and all the trees; When they now shoot forth, ye see and know of your own selves that summer is now nigh at hand (Lk.21:29-30). He did not say “your generation” but this generation. Which generation? The one that sees the fig tree, and all the trees shoot forth leaves as well as the beginning of sorrows (Mt.24:8) marking the first half of the tribulation; and the abomination of desolation (Mt.24:15) marking the second half of the tribulation; and the powers of the heavens shaken (Mt.24:29) marking the end of the tribulation; yea, that generation that sees those things, whenever those things begin, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled (Mt.24:34). Christ again clearly placed the imminence after the commencement of the aforementioned events, when he said: when ye shall see all these things (Mt.24:33), then know that it is near, even at the doors (Mt.24:33). When he says this generation shall not pass in the next verse (Mt.24:34) he is qualifying how near, even at the doors (Mt.24:33), and how nigh at hand the kingdom of God will be (Lk.21:31), from the beginning point of seeing all these things (Mt.24:33). So if a disciple asks the Lord: “how long after the fig tree puts forth leaves (Mt.24:32) or how long after the beginning of sorrows (Mt.24:8), till all these things be fulfilled (Mt.24:34)?” The Lord replies: “This generation [that sees those things begin] shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled (Mt.24:34)”. This makes sense given that the tribulation period will be seven years long, therefore it stands to reason This generation [that sees those things begin] shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled (Mt.24:34) since a generation is certainly longer than seven years.

Does that interpretation make sense to you?

I think you got this one right.
 

David Kent

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Very-obviously, the prophesied eschatological events didn't happen then, so it could not have been referring to that generation.
Those events are symbolic, just as all the other similar prophecies throughout scripture. As you know star can't fall from the sky to earth without detroying the whole solar system.

Your view is nonsense.
 

George Antonios

Well-Known Member
Those events are symbolic, just as all the other similar prophecies throughout scripture. As you know star can't fall from the sky to earth without detroying the whole solar system.

Your view is nonsense.
Of course it can.
A) The Bible is only symbolic when it tells you it's symbolic or when it's impossible to take literally.
In the case of the stars, Christ told us that stars=angels in Revelation 1:20.
B) But even there, there are many prophecies about the stars being destroyed, does that mean all angels? Of course not.
You're limiting yourself to what current science says about stars. In the tribulation, the people will see those shining night-things above their heads fall down to earth (causing heart-attacks according to the Lord in Luke) and manifest as angels, and they won't be great balls of gas either. We really don't care for the limitations of science falsely so called here. We don't deny the physicality of those orbs in the heavens, but we're saying that science doesn't have all knowledge on this issue and that we believe the book that there is a spiritual connection between those things and angels.
 

David Kent

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Of course it can.
A) The Bible is only symbolic when it tells you it's symbolic or when it's impossible to take literally.
In the case of the stars, Christ told us that stars=angels in Revelation 1:20.
B) But even there, there are many prophecies about the stars being destroyed, does that mean all angels? Of course not.
You're limiting yourself to what current science says about stars. In the tribulation, the people will see those shining night-things above their heads fall down to earth (causing heart-attacks according to the Lord in Luke) and manifest as angels, and they won't be great balls of gas either. We really don't care for the limitations of science falsely so called here. We don't deny the physicality of those orbs in the heavens, but we're saying that science doesn't have all knowledge on this issue and that we believe the book that there is a spiritual connection between those things and angels.

No I am not. I am following scripture. Stars are people in Genesis, Daniel and Revelation. Stars darkening are also related to events like the fall of Jerusalem to Babylon, as I showed before. If you take them in Olivet as literal, then it is the only time that is used in prophecy in that way. An aberation, you might say.
 
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rsr

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Come on, Aaron. It's only symbolic if the text says Διαβάστε προσεκτικά, αυτό είναι συμβολικό.
 

George Antonios

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No I am not. I am following scripture. Stars are people in Genesis, Daniel and Revelation. Stars darkening are also related to events like the fall of Jerusalem to Babylon, as I showed before. If you take them in Olivet as literal, then it is the only time that is used in prophecy in that way. An aberation, you might say.
Gen 1:14 And God said, Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to divide the day from the night; and let them be for signs, and for seasons, and for days, and years:
Gen 1:15 And let them be for lights in the firmament of the heaven to give light upon the earth: and it was so.
Gen 1:16 And God made two great lights; the greater light to rule the day, and the lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also.

The opening function of the physical stars, in connection to being lights, according to God Almighty their creator himself, is to be for signs.
Rev 8:12 And the fourth angel sounded, and the third part of the sun was smitten, and the third part of the moon, and the third part of the stars; so as the third part of them was darkened, and the day shone not for a third part of it, and the night likewise.
That is a direct reference back to Genesis 1:14-16 and the darkening of the 1/3 of the host of heaven causes a physical darkening on the physical planet earth because it's the physical hosts that have been smitten. How does smiting 1/3 of the angels of heaven cause the day and night not to shine for a 1/3 of their period? It doesn't. The sun is a figure of Christ in the Bible. Is 1/3 of Christ smitten and darkened? Of course not.

No one disputes the spiritual connections of starts. What I'm saying is that you cannot for as much eliminate the underlying physical reality of falling stars in the tribulation.
 

Calminian

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No I am not. I am following scripture. Stars are people in Genesis, Daniel and Revelation. Stars darkening are also related to events like the fall of Jerusalem to Babylon, as I showed before. If you take them in Olivet as literal, then it is the only time that is used in prophecy in that way. An aberation, you might say.

Get Genesis wrong, you are are prone to error in everything else. This explains a lot.
 

Calminian

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....You're limiting yourself to what current science says about stars.....

Yep, he's making a nomenclature error. Very common.

You are correct, the biblical word for star actually means luminary—any small light in the night sky. Sometimes we broaden this definition, today, in regard to falling stars (meteors), but generally we have a narrower definition than the biblical word.

Today we have the ability to categorizes all the various luminaries in the night sky, and have designated star to only refer to suns, while describing planets and meteors with other words.

Not really a problem, if we understand this.
 

Revmitchell

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Yep, he's making a nomenclature error. Very common.

You are correct, the biblical word for star actually means luminary—any small light in the night sky. Sometimes we broaden this definition, today, in regard to falling stars (meteors), but generally we have a narrower definition than the biblical word.

Today we have the ability to categorizes all the various luminaries in the night sky, and have designated star to only refer to suns, while describing planets and meteors with other words.

Not really a problem, if we understand this.

And you know what? That should not have to be explained but here we are with the need anyway.
 
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