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Regarding John 3:16, which do you prefer?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by alexander284, Dec 29, 2019.

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  1. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    You mean as the Geneva and Kjv translated it, as well as Nkjv and nas?
     
  2. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Interesting that Dr Robertson wrote a textbook 1914 in Biblical Green that even Dr wallace would recognize as still being the finest ever done!
     
  3. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Why are you posting incessant nonsense. Your claim that an exception invalidates the rule is a well known fallacy. Monogenes means unique or one of a kind every time it appears in scripture. No exceptions.
     
  4. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    Lack of competition from your century does not mean you are the best. We are blessed with tremendous talent in the studies of the Greek language like no other generation has ever seen. We have Wallace, Black, Plummer, Kostenberger, Mounce, Pennington, Zacharias, Merkle, Baugh and others.

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  5. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    Is there a post here where you proved its meaning 2000 years ago? I may have missed it.

    I agree that the majority of American scholars appear to agree. However, they are not all the scholars, and possibly not the majority across the spectrum of church history.
     
  6. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    except that have shown to you that DRRoberston and the standard Greek lexicon both disagree with you, so who is really being the stubborn one?
     
  7. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Nor even the ones that translation the formal translations such as Nas and Nkjv....
     
  8. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    You can bring a horse to water, but you can not make his drink. I have provided all the evidence need for any rational mind to accept unique or one of a kind.
     
  9. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Not disagree with you, but Shakespeare still cindered to be the single greatest English writer, correct, despite our "advancement" in English grammar and knowledge?
     
  10. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    Why are you calling an out of print lexicon "the standard"? Because JoJ likes it?

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    • Agree Agree x 1
  11. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Did I rely on one scholar (Wallace) or the majority of scholars? Roberston was wrong, Here is some of a prior post:
    BDAG
    1...to being the only one of its kind within a specific relationship, one and only, only
    2...to being the only one of its kind or class, unique

    TDNT
    More generally it means 'unique' or 'incomparable.'

    I don't have my Frieberg Anlex with me...so I can't check it. But the fact that the number "2" is used in your definition, there is others.

    Lowd Nida
    pertaining to what is unique in the sense of being the only one of the same kind or class - unique, only.

    EDNT
    only (one of its kind), unique*

    Barclay Newman
    only, unique
     
  12. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    I can't even translate this phrase into modern English. Don't even know what you are getting at.
     
  13. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    That is from the third edition of BAGD, is that not the latest one? has it supports only begotten to be used there!
     
  14. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    The basic problem that some seem to have with using only begotten is that to them denotes Jesus as being a created being....
     
  15. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    What a waste, what a denial, what a deflection.
     
  16. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Not the basis problem!! The problem is the word means unique or one of a kind. Your side goes with agenda driven mistranslations.
     
  17. McCree79

    McCree79 Well-Known Member
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    The KJV was the greatest translation for centuries. Therefore it must always be the greatest right?

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  18. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Interesting that Kjv/Nas/Nkjv all disagree with you on this, so what were their agendas?
     
  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Nope, as I prefer the Nas and Esv myself, but still have to see it as being greatest as in most influential of all time!
     
  20. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    That’s for sure. Works well when you only consider your own evidence. Course, I have noticed you have never even admitted that your own star witness (Daniel B. Wallace) says that monogenes can mean only begotten.
     
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