Lets look at the story of Lazarus (not the Parable of Lazarus, which well look at near end of this study):
John 11:11-14 - These things said he: and after that he saith unto them, Our friend Lazarus sleepeth; but I go, that I may awake him out of sleep. Then said his disciples, Lord, if he sleep, he shall do well. Howbeit Jesus spake of his death: but they thought that he had spoken of taking of rest in sleep. Then said Jesus unto them plainly, Lazarus is dead. And then in verse 17 Jesus says of Lazarus: 17 Then when Jesus came, he found that he [Lazarus] had lain in the grave four days already.
We see that 1) Jesus equated death to sleep and used the terms interchangeably; and 2) in this story Lazarus has been dead for 4 days. Agreed? Now, lets continue:
Verse 43-44: And when he thus had spoken, he cried with a loud voice, Lazarus, come forth. And he that was dead came forth, bound hand and foot with graveclothes: and his face was bound about with a napkin. Jesus saith unto them, Loose him, and let him go.
Now, Lazarus had been dead for 4 days if he had in fact gone to heaven (or hell) in any conscious form why is nothing told by Lazarus of this? Lazarus does not come back to life with any stories of where he was, what he saw, or anything. He doesnt talk about walking on streets of gold nor burning with fire. After being resurrected he does speak and all he says is a simple acknowledgement of who was standing there with Jesus.
Why doesnt Lazarus have any such stories of an afterlife? The Bible tells us why:
Ecclesiastes 9:5 - For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten.
Job 12:2 - No doubt but ye are the people, and wisdom shall die with you.
So, when do we get our reward?
Matthew 16:27 - For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.
Matthew 5:12 - Rejoice, and be exceeding glad: for great is your reward in heaven: for so persecuted they the prophets which were before you.
Matthew 6:1 - Take heed that ye do not your alms before men, to be seen of them: otherwise ye have no reward of your Father which is in heaven.
Luke 6:23 - Rejoice ye in that day, and leap for joy: for, behold, your reward is great in heaven: for in the like manner did their fathers unto the prophets.
Revelation 22:12 - And, behold, I come quickly; and my reward is with me, to give every man according as his work shall be.
Notice that the reward comes when Jesus comes back not before and not after. Nor does it make a lick of sense that if people were already in heaven that Jesus would send them back to earth to re-resurrect them. That would serve no purpose at all and the Bible simply does not teach that. That is a fairytale and I challenge anyone to produce any scripture in favor of that teaching.
Lets look at Christs example on the cross and Ill include the thief in this point since many cite this as a reason to believe that we go immediately to heaven or hell following death:
Luke 23:42, 43 - And he said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom. And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise.
Luke 23:46 - And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.
So, as we learned earlier the word spirit (ruach) simply means His breath. But now well verify many of the things established in this paper:
1) Did Jesus ascend to heaven that day? No.
Remember, Jesus died on a Friday (day of preparation
Luke 23:54), laid dead in the sepulchre all of Saturday (Sabbath again
Luke 23:54), rose on Sunday, and
John 20:1 - The first day of the week (Sunday still) cometh Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark, unto the sepulchre, and seeth the stone taken away from the sepulchre.
(
Luke 24:21 further verifies it was three days)
John 20:17 - Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
Jesus was dead and rose on the third day and still had not yet ascended to heaven.
2) Did the thief die that day? No.
In fact, the Jews didnt want anyone hanging on the cross during their Sabbath day so the Romans broke the legs of the thief and the other (neither of which had died yet) so that when they took the crosses down they wouldnt run away (
John 19:31-33).
3) Did the thief
even ask to be taken to heaven that day? No. The thief knew his theology what did he ask?
Luke 23:42, 43 - And he said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom...
The thief did
not ask to be taken to heaven when he died but when Christ would return. This is very important to understand, don't miss it.
Never has the misplacement of a comma ever caused so much trouble. Remember, neither Greek nor Hebrew contains any form of punctuation nor capitalization the translators put those in when they translated to English.
Is it possible they were swayed by a preconceived notion?
Maybe so.
Are they inspired as the writers of the Bible were?
No, certainly not.
Were they just being consistent?
YES! Check it out; any time in the Bible where Jesus says verily I say unto thee there is always a comma immediately following the phrase. The translators were merely being consistent in their translation and I can't fault them for that - but this time it was at the expense of the true meaning of what Jesus actually said.
Am I wrong? Well lets test that. Let's see if there are examples of misplaced commas in other places in the Bible just to see if this is possible:
Acts 19:12 - So that from his body were brought unto the sick handkerchiefs or aprons, and the diseases departed from them, and the evil spirits went out of them.
Now ask yourself, were the handkerchiefs sick? Did they have evil spirits in them? No. According to the way this sentence is written then they were, right? Doesn't it stand to reason that the comma is misplaced? I would think so.
Lets see another example:
Genesis 16:1 - Now Sarai Abram's wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian, whose name was Hagar.
Was Sarai Abram his name? No. The commas are missing between the names it should read
Now Sarai, Abramss wife, bare him
There are many others the point is that punctuation mistakes DID happen and the example of the thief on the cross is merely another one that can easily be corrected if people would correlate the meaning to the plain teachings found in the rest of the Bible. The Bible does not contradict itself but sometimes one must look a bit deeper than the surface to see that. There are other punctuation mistakes; check out
2 Peter 3:12 (its a statement, not a question) &
Hebrews 4:8 (its a question, not a statement).