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The Pre-incarnate Christ

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Hobie, Aug 8, 2020.

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  1. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Do you believe that these two natures are "inseparable" while not being "confused" (a mixture)?

    In other words, do you agree with the creeds that Christ is fully God and fully man (not God with a human nature, not man with a divine nature but two natures inseparable and without confusion)?

    Your post seems to reject both the Athanasian Creed by rejecting that Christ is fully human and perhaps even the Chalcedonian Creed by rejecting that these natures are inseparable (you seem to say that Christ is not fully human but is Divine with a human nature added, which would contradict not only Scripture but also both creeds).

    I am just asking for clarification. Are you comfortable at least with saying that Jesus is fully human and fully God?
     
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  2. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Let me clarify, @1689Dave ,

    I am not Catholic so I do not view the creeds as the foundation of our faith. I do not care if one adheres to the creeds. BUT it does matter if people reject what at least the Athanasian Creed and Chalcedonian Creed have in common - and that is a basic doctrine of the Trinity (and here as it applies to Christ). If someone rejects that Jesus is fully human and fully God then they reject not only that the Word became flesh but they reject both of these creeds. The former, not the latter, would be my primary concern.

    I am simply asking a yes or no question. Do you believe that Jesus is fully man and fully God - one person with two "natures", inseparable yet with no "mixture" - not more man than man, not less God than God.

    You seem to be trying to reinvent the wheel. I am just asking if you agree if the wheel is round. Do you believe that Jesus is fully God and fully man?
     
  3. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Regardless of your opinion it is my firm understanding "Lord" in the phrase "our Lord Jesus Christ," refers to Jesus in His humanity (Matthew 22:45) and "Christ" in that phrase refers to His deity (Ephesians 5:5). And that Greek use of the term "Lord" in the NT is a whole study in of itself. The Greek term "Lord" can indeed refer to Jehovah God, such as in Romans 10:13.
    My point being more often the Apostle's use of the term "Lord" to Jesus refers to His humanity not to His deity. Romans 10:9 refers to Jesus in His humanity. This Lordship is according to Psalms 110:1, Matthew 22:43-45.
     
  4. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    That is an interpretation. (I agree with). The text does not explicitly say that (1 Thessalonians 4:16).
     
  5. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    You are saying this. I never made anys such claim that Jesus was two persons.
     
  6. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    What most Christians fail to know, Jesus' body did not die unitil after the atonement was completed, as stated in John 19:28, ". . . Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . ."
     
  7. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Never. I will not take other men's interreations over the pure word of God.
     
  8. 1689Dave

    1689Dave Well-Known Member

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    Really... does this mean you are wrong since they are right? Do you agree with them? The cult books don't think too highly of you if you do not.
     
  9. 1689Dave

    1689Dave Well-Known Member

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    So not one drop of blood fell to the ground when they removed him from the cross?
     
  10. 1689Dave

    1689Dave Well-Known Member

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    That's good.
     
  11. 1689Dave

    1689Dave Well-Known Member

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    So if the creeds are true, shouldn't you encourage their teaching benefits instead of trying to discount them?
     
  12. 1689Dave

    1689Dave Well-Known Member

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    I stick to the creeds.
     
  13. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    That is what you say, but your posts call this into question. I can say that I only type in German but if I am typing in English my actions kinda betray my words.

    I will, however, accept your statement as a declaration that you do indeed believe that Christ is fully man and fully God, one Person, two inseparable yet distinct natures, not more than man in his humanity nor less than God in His divinity.

    A simple "yes" would have worked when I quoted the Athanisian Creed and asked you if you believed it correct.
     
  14. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    No. I am not creedal (I do not believe that creeds are equal to God's Word).

    What I do teach, and what the Creeds do teach, is that Christ is fully God and Fully man. But I prefer to lean on Scripture rather than Catholic creeds for support. The Gospel of John is one example of proof that Christ is fully God and fully man and I prefer to rest in God's Word.
     
  15. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Jesus was/is JUST God the Son!
     
  16. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    No, ONLY the Son became Jesus!
     
  17. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Paul use of the title Lord was to indicate that He is the same as Yahweh of the OT!
     
  18. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    I am unsure what Jesus being the name of the trinity and being the trinity means, would that not sound like Jesus only?
     
  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Over the scriptures?
     
  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    well. were they or scriptures inspired?
     
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