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Featured Was Luke a Gentile?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by rlvaughn, Dec 15, 2020.

  1. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    In another thread, Yeshua1 brought up the idea the Luke -- the beloved physician, author of the Gospel of Luke, and Acts of the Apostles -- was a Gentile rather than a Jew. Rather than discuss it there, where it moves away from the topic, I decided to create a new thread. Some might be interested in discussing it in depth.
    The theory is based on historical tradition and certain interpretations of Scripture.

    Eusebius of Caesarea wrote his Historia Ecclesiastica (or, Church History) circa AD 323. In it (III.4.7), he states that Luke “was of Antiochian parentage and a physician by profession” and in Quaestiones Evangelicae (or, Gospel Problems and Solutions) says he came from “a family from the renowned Antioch.” Jerome of Stridon agrees, writing in De Viris Illustribus (On Illustrious Men) circa AD 392, “Luke a physician of Antioch, as his writings indicate, was not unskilled in the Greek language.”

    Here are the main arguments referencing Scripture, that I have heard:

    • Colossians 4:10-11 fellow workers who are “of the circumcision” (i.e., Jewish).
    • Luke is mentioned later in Colossians 4:14, not in that “of the circumcision” group.
    • The name “Luke” is a Greek form of a Latin name.
    • Acts 1:19 mentions a field with a Semitic name and then speaks of “their” language.
    • Luke has great knowledge of the LXX or Septuagint, the Greek Old Testament.
     
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  2. Tsalagi

    Tsalagi Member

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    May I suggest that if this were important Scripture would give us a clear answer.
     
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  3. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    I suspect you are right. Nevertheless, much ink has been spilled on proving that Luke was a Gentile. The apparent interest is that if Luke was a Gentile, then the Lord entrusted more of writing the New Testament to be written by a Gentile than to any other single person (all the rest being Jews).
     
  4. Tsalagi

    Tsalagi Member

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    Again, if Scripture does not assign weight to this possibility I'm not convinced that we should.
     
  5. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    A BB members sent me the following link, which discusses Was Luke a Gentile?, by Thomas S. McCall. McCall cites why people think it is important:
    Afterwards McCall lays out the arguments for Luke being a Gentile, but concludes:
     
  6. Tsalagi

    Tsalagi Member

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    (a) Acts 1:19 is pretty compelling, and it's the Bible.
    (b) To repeat yet again, why assign significance to this when Scripture doesn't? Where's the applicational value?
     
  7. kathleenmariekg

    kathleenmariekg Active Member

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    Thank you for posting about this. I am told that when I write my papers, I am responsible to know of the controversies even if I don't believe them or think they are important.

    If much ink has been spilled over this, I guess I am responsible to know that at least. Thanks!
     
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  8. Baptist Believer

    Baptist Believer Well-Known Member
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    A few years ago I led a 17-month verse-by-verse study of the Gospel of Luke on Sunday morning.

    At the very beginning of the study, as part of the introductory material, and to provide context, I researched the question of Luke potentially being a Gentile. You mentioned most of the biblical support for the question, but missed the cultural issue. In the Greco-Roman world, physicians were usually from conquered peoples, primarily Greeks, since they were more advanced than the Romans but not as powerful. The vast majority of physicians were slaves, serving the Roman community and armies throughout the Empire.

    Given Luke’s remarkable knowledge of the ancient world, describing the growth of the early church through the Roman world, and his dedication of both of his surviving books to “Theophilus” (Greek for “lover of God”) — regardless if that is a specific person with that name or a general address to those who love God — strongly suggests he was not Jewish.

    Ultimately, it is not essential for interpretation, but it does explain his omission of “let the reader understand” passage Jesus’ prophecy/warning to flee into the mountains when the Roman army comes to destroy Jerusalem and the Temple in 70 AD. (Compare Luke 21:20-24 with Matthew 24:15-20 and Mark 13:14-18, noting specifically Matthew 24:15 and Mark 13:14). Luke also doesn’t include the reference to Abomination of Desolation for that might not be familiar to his readers, but gives a much more straightforward account.
     
    #8 Baptist Believer, Dec 16, 2020
    Last edited: Dec 16, 2020
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  9. Guvnuh

    Guvnuh Active Member
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    Understanding these “insignificant” things of scripture encourages people from All walks of every tribe of the human race.
    God uses the rich and the poor, Healthy and sick, educated and uneducated, the powerful and the weak , the young and the old to fulfill His purpose.
    The question is, “Are you available?”
     
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  10. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    First, there would be the question of whether this is Peter speaking or Luke making a parenthetical explanation. If it is Peter speaking, then this cannot be used in the way that some use it to make Luke contrast himself (a Gentile) to their tongue (Jews). If this is a parentheses, then perhaps it carries some weight in the discussion. However, there are other possible explanations. For example, it could mean something like a "Jerusalem dialect" opposed to whatever dialect Luke spoke (then the antecedent would be specifically "the dwellers at Jerusalem" rather than Jews generally). We know from the Scriptures that the Galileans spoke in a way recognizably different from the inhabitants of Jerusalem.
    I do not assign any particular significance to whether or not Luke was a Gentile. That does not, however, mean that no one does, or that no one is discussing it.
     
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  11. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    The tradition is that Luke was a Gentile, but the evidence is too sketchy to present as doctrine. But I am with those who do not see importance, but wrangling as to the issue, for there is no difference in Christ. The NT is all about our blood heritage meaning nothing.
     
  12. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    SGO supplied another link, to a nice article "Colossians 4:11 and the Ethnic Identity of Luke," by R. Wayne Stacy. Here are a couple of points from it.
     
  13. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    If Colossians 4:14 means Luke was a Gentile then Genesis 35:23-26 means Benjamin was born in Padanaram; but he wasn't.

    Gen 35:23 The sons of Leah; Reuben, Jacob's firstborn, and Simeon, and Levi, and Judah, and Issachar, and Zebulun:
    Gen 35:24 The sons of Rachel; Joseph, and Benjamin:
    Gen 35:25 And the sons of Bilhah, Rachel's handmaid; Dan, and Naphtali:
    Gen 35:26 And the sons of Zilpah, Leah's handmaid; Gad, and Asher: these are the sons of Jacob, which were born to him in Padanaram.
     
  14. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Which would be the reason why he shows to us the Jesus that is Roman, Greek, Jewish, is for all!
     
  15. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    Yes, Jesus is for all, whether Jew or Gentile, but I don't know what point you are making in regard to Luke possibly being a Gentile?
     
  16. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Being a gentile, he would have emphasis about Jesus being Messiah for us also, not just Israel !
     
  17. rlvaughn

    rlvaughn Well-Known Member
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    The entire New Testament, written by mostly Jews even if one accepts the Luke/Gentile theory, emphasizes that Jesus is the Messiah for us all.
     
  18. RighteousnessTemperance&

    RighteousnessTemperance& Well-Known Member

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    Yes, this is all well and good, but to really annoy your professors and make a name for yourself, and eventually start your own cult, you need to argue persuasively some obscure position or clever twist, such as the obvious fact that Luke was an uncircumcised Jew, like Timothy had been. :Wink
     
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  19. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    A lot of people are shocked that Luke was not a disciple or one of the twelve. His gospel starts out as him writing to Theoplius. I've always thought he was a Greek.
    MB
     
  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Yes, but Matthew main emphasis was to the Jews, and Luke seemed to be towards Gentiles!
     
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