Scripture More Accurately
Well-Known Member
Is there instrumental music that displeases God? If so, what do we know about such music?
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That sinful people cannot please God?Scripture provides several passages about the activities of sinful people that included the playing of musical instruments. What should we believe that these passages teach us about instrumental music that displeases God?
We have much Scripture that teaches us that sinful people have not pleased God. Whether or not any instrumental music that they have produced has displeased God is what I am wanting to discuss.That sinful people cannot please God?
I would say that it does displease God. The reason is music is at its very basic an expression. So replace music with expression. Is God pleased by the expressions of the unrighteous?We have much Scripture that teaches us that sinful people have not pleased God. Whether or not any instrumental music that they have produced has displeased God is what I am wanting to discuss.
Probing the passage in Isaiah 5 that I posted above is a good way to pursue this topic further biblically.
I agree that it does displease God. Many believers, however, deny that any instrumental music itself is displeasing to God. They hold that music is "just music," that it is all neutral or amoral or inherently good. These differing views are widely held, but I do not find any Bible to support any of them.I would say that it does displease God. The reason is music is at its very basic an expression. So replace music with expression. Is God pleased by the expressions of the unrighteous?
The passage does not specify any information about the instrumental music that was played.Where is it stated that the music played was composed for these feasts?
Could not the tunes been from the general culture, like from the top 40?
Aren't there hymns we sing today whose music comes from barroom songs?
Therefore since the origin of the music, minus the lyrics, came from people who were not sober, is it evil?
Where is it stated that the music played was composed for these feasts?
"The passage does not specify any information about the instrumental music that was played."
So bottom line we cannot say that the music used came from nefarious sources, only that it was employed to accompany evil behavior.
I do not know of any way of knowing what it might have been.pre modern Jazz then?
Any music with or without lyrics that encourages evil thought or action displeases God.
The secular/sacred dichotomy that makes sense to post-moderns once again makes things difficult here, for in Luther’s time stylistically there is very little difference between a German popular song in the sixteenth century, a sacred Protestant chorale and a Leise. (Rebecca Wagner Oettinger, Music as Propaganda in the German Reformation, p. 25)
Like Isaiah 5:11-15, Amos 6:1-8 speaks of God's pronouncing a woe on drunken, indulgent leaders among His people
I don’t want to get caught up in this debate, but I think there is a better Amos verse that has been missed from this conversation: Amos 5:23: Take away from me the noise of your songs; to the melody of your harps I will not listen.