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God Who is The Saviour of the Human Race

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
1 Timothy 4:10

“For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of the entire human race, especially of those who believe”


παντων ανθρωπων, here is the equivalent of “the entire human race”. This is also made very clear from what Paul says next, “μαλιστα πιστων”, which is, “most of all believers”. It is also clear here, that “παντων ανθρωπων” cannot be limited to “the elect” only, or those who are “saved”, as this is what “μαλιστα πιστων” refers to. Some have sought to weaken the reference to the Salvation of the entire human race, buy suggesting that “σωτήρ” here is not translated by the English “Saviour”, but, rather, “Preserver”. This noun is used 24 times in the New Testament, and in every instance Bible Versions like the KJV, have always used “Saviour”. So, why would its meaning change only at this place? No doubt because of theological reasons, as this verse is yet another, like John 3:16; 1 John 2:2; 2 Peter 3:9, that very clearly teach that The Lord Jesus Christ IS the Saviour, not only for “the elect”, as some would have us believe, but, for every single human being that ever has and will exist. This is the plain, Biblical meaning of these, and many other verses, which is what the Holy Spirit intends that we accept, but there are some who will still argue with the Teachings of the Holy Bible!

In Galatians 6:10, Paul tells us, “So then, as we have opportunity, let us work that which is good toward all men (παντας), and especially toward them that are of the household of the faith”. Note the contrast here. “all men…especially”. Again, very clear, that “all men” means “the entire human race”, and “the household of the faith”, refers to all believers in the Lord Jesus Christ, the saved.

While Jesus Christ died for and is the Saviour of the entire human race, it is evident, that only those who will “repent of their sins and believe in the Lord Jesus Christ” (Mark 1:15; Luke 13:1-5, 24:47; Acts 2:37-38; 3:19, etc), will be saved. This is what Paul tells us in Romans 3:23-26:

“for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God’s righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins. It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.”

“put forward”, is in the Greek, “προτίθημι”, which can be translated, “offered”, where Jesus Christ is “offered” as the sin-offering (ιλαστηριον) for the sins of every human being. However, as we can see from verse 26, only those who have faith in Jesus Christ, as their personal Saviour and Lord, and actually “Justified” with the Lord, and become His children. This is the Gospel of the Holy Bible.

The theory of a limit on the Death of the Lord Jesus Christ, as being only for a select few, is again shown as contrary to what the Word of God actually teaches.
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
Another question...Did God plan for anyone to exist who never did? For instance, John Smith might have been, if his ancestors hadn't perished in the Flood. And God's plan for the life of John Smith was thwarted because of their disobedience.

Or maybe his dad died in an automobile accident before John was conceived.

Is there any situation like that?

(This may seem unrelated, but it's not.)
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Even Sodom?

Matthew 10:15, "Truly I tell you, it will be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah on the day of judgment than for that town"

Matthew 11:21, "
Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon which were done in you, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes"
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Another question...Did God plan for anyone to exist who never did? For instance, John Smith might have been, if his ancestors hadn't perished in the Flood. And God's plan for the life of John Smith was thwarted because of their disobedience.

Or maybe his dad died in an automobile accident before John was conceived.

Is there any situation like that?

(This may seem unrelated, but it's not.)

your reasoning is moot
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
1 Timothy 4:10

“For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of the entire human race, especially of those who believe”


παντων ανθρωπων, here is the equivalent of “the entire human race”. This is also made very clear from what Paul says next, “μαλιστα πιστων”, which is, “most of all believers”. It is also clear here, that “παντων ανθρωπων” cannot be limited to “the elect” only, or those who are “saved”, as this is what “μαλιστα πιστων” refers to. Some have sought to weaken the reference to the Salvation of the entire human race, buy suggesting that “σωτήρ” here is not translated by the English “Saviour”, but, rather, “Preserver”. This noun is used 24 times in the New Testament, and in every instance Bible Versions like the KJV, have always used “Saviour”. So, why would its meaning change only at this place? No doubt because of theological reasons, as this verse is yet another, like John 3:16; 1 John 2:2; 2 Peter 3:9, that very clearly teach that The Lord Jesus Christ IS the Saviour, not only for “the elect”, as some would have us believe, but, for every single human being that ever has and will exist. This is the plain, Biblical meaning of these, and many other verses, which is what the Holy Spirit intends that we accept, but there are some who will still argue with the Teachings of the Holy Bible!

In Galatians 6:10, Paul tells us, “So then, as we have opportunity, let us work that which is good toward all men (παντας), and especially toward them that are of the household of the faith”. Note the contrast here. “all men…especially”. Again, very clear, that “all men” means “the entire human race”, and “the household of the faith”, refers to all believers in the Lord Jesus Christ, the saved.

While Jesus Christ died for and is the Saviour of the entire human race, it is evident, that only those who will “repent of their sins and believe in the Lord Jesus Christ” (Mark 1:15; Luke 13:1-5, 24:47; Acts 2:37-38; 3:19, etc), will be saved. This is what Paul tells us in Romans 3:23-26:

“for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God’s righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins. It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.”

“put forward”, is in the Greek, “προτίθημι”, which can be translated, “offered”, where Jesus Christ is “offered” as the sin-offering (ιλαστηριον) for the sins of every human being. However, as we can see from verse 26, only those who have faith in Jesus Christ, as their personal Saviour and Lord, and actually “Justified” with the Lord, and become His children. This is the Gospel of the Holy Bible.

The theory of a limit on the Death of the Lord Jesus Christ, as being only for a select few, is again shown as contrary to what the Word of God actually teaches.
Jesus died to secure a sure salvation for His own people!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Jesus died to secure a sure salvation for His own people!

says your theology, but 1 Timothy 4:10 goes much further, as the "entire human race", is distinct from "the saved". Yet it clearly says that God is the Saviour of both groups. The same sense of the word must apply to the whole verse
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
says your theology, but 1 Timothy 4:10 goes much further, as the "entire human race", is distinct from "the saved". Yet it clearly says that God is the Saviour of both groups. The same sense of the word must apply to the whole verse
His death only benefited the redeemed!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
His death only benefited the redeemed!

a couple of questions for you

1. do you believe that this verse is speaking about the entire human race, and then especially of those who are saved?

2. In what way do you understand Paul's use of “σωτήρ” here? And, does this apply to the entire human race, equally?
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
Matthew 10:15, "Truly I tell you, it will be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah on the day of judgment than for that town"

Matthew 11:21, "
Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon which were done in you, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes"
Are you implying that Jesus had the people of Sodom on His mind when He was on the Cross? That He was bearing their sins?

Were any saved?
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Are you implying that Jesus had the people of Sodom on His mind when He was on the Cross? That He was bearing their sins?

Were any saved?

Jesus had every single sinner on His mind on the cross when He died for them, as He did for Judas. But no one can be saved without repenting and believing in the Gospel
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
a couple of questions for you

1. do you believe that this verse is speaking about the entire human race, and then especially of those who are saved?

2. In what way do you understand Paul's use of “σωτήρ” here? And, does this apply to the entire human race, equally?
Jesus is the Savior for all of the redeemed!
 
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