It fits within PSA atonement much better then the other theories though!No. Penal Substitution Theory does rely on the passage (as do all of the other theories). Isaiah 53 confirms what we all believe. It is FAR from proving Penal Substitution.
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It fits within PSA atonement much better then the other theories though!No. Penal Substitution Theory does rely on the passage (as do all of the other theories). Isaiah 53 confirms what we all believe. It is FAR from proving Penal Substitution.
No, it does not.It fits within PSA atonement much better then the other theories though!
God was pleased to crush Messiah, to have experience all that lost sinners will, including being forsaken!No, it does not.
The passage has the people as erroneously entering the "Servant" as stricken. The passage does not have the "Servant" suffering God's wrath.
It is better without the addition on Penal Substitution Theory.
Part of your post is Scripture, part made up.God was pleased to crush Messiah, to have experience all that lost sinners will, including being forsaken!
Will you please explain to me the verses that say that the people were wrong? He patently was 'smitten' (v.5) and v.10 tells us that it was Yahweh who did the smiting. You are making an assumption that is without Biblical evidence.No, it does not.
The passage has the people as erroneously entering the "Servant" as stricken. The passage does not have the "Servant" suffering God's wrath.
It is better without the addition on Penal Substitution Theory.
The "yet" or "but". The point is the people esteemed the Servant as stricken by God but He was dying for their sins (not His own) as they were the ones truly stricken.Will you please explain to me the verses that say that the people were wrong?
The point is that there is no verse that states that the people were wrong in esteeming the Servant as stricken by God. In fact they were exactly right.The "yet" or "but". The point is the people esteemed the Servant as stricken by God but He was dying for their sins (not His own) as they were the ones truly stricken.
It pleased the Lord to crush Him. The verse does not say that it pleased the Lord that He was crushed. According to Motyer, 'LORD' is emphatic, as in 'It was the LORD who willed or delighted to crush the Servant. So when we read in v.5 that He was crushed for our iniquities, v.10 makes it very clear who was doing the crushing.Do you know of a passage stating Jesus suffered under God's hand - NOT under God's will (as in it pleased Him to crush Him or He died at the hands of the wicked but in accordance to God's predetermined plan) but a verse stating God was inflicting the suffering?
The passage itself states the people were wrong (that is the point).The point is that there is no verse that states that the people were wrong in esteeming the Servant as stricken by God. In fact they were exactly right.
It pleased the Lord to crush Him. The verse does not say that it pleased the Lord that He was crushed. According to Motyer, 'LORD' is emphatic, as in 'It was the LORD who willed or delighted to crush the Servant. So when we read in v.5 that He was crushed for our iniquities, v.10 makes it very clear who was doing the crushing.
How the Father must love us miserable sinners that He should delight in causing the sufferings of His beloved Son!
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