More Words Hard to Translate

[John of Japan]

The word "touch" is not necessarily hard to translate. As far as I know, all languages have a word for "touch." The problem comes when there is an idiom or euphemism. For example, the idiom "touched in the head" would have to be translated with something like "mentally unstable."

In 1 Cor. 7:1 we have the phrase, "It is good for a man not to touch a woman" (KJV). The Greek word is ἅπτεσθαι, the present middle infinitive of ἅπτω, which is the normal word for the verb "touch." Now traditionally this has always been translated simply "to touch," but some modern versions treat the phrase "touch a woman" as an idiom, thus: "It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman" (ESV). Frankly, I think that is ridiculous.

Think about it. If you are married, then you should have relations with your wife? (The word for "woman" is gune, γυνή, also meaning "wife.") In the context, Paul is clearly talking about avoiding sexual sin. (See the next verse.) Now would Paul be saying, "It is good if you do not commit fornication"? Not on your life. He'd be saying clearly that it was sin. Now, where does sexual sin start? You can't commit it without touching. So it is good not to touch a woman. This is not saying that it is a sin to touch a woman--for example you are helping an old lady cross the street, administering CPR to a woman, etc. It's simply a good idea to have a personal standard of not touching women unnecessarily. (How many politicians have gotten in trouble lately by just touching a woman?)

So where did the modern translator get the idea that "touch a woman" is a Greek idiom? I have no idea. There are no other passages in the NT where it looks like it could mean that. I assume that somewhere some Greek scholar found a secular Greek document that seems to use the phrase as an idiom, but I've not seen such an argument yet. Anyone?

 

[Ziggy]

It might be good to remember that απτω is also used for starting a fire and not exactly for sticking your hand into an already burning fire.

 

[37818]

The word "touch" is not necessarily hard to translate. As far as I know, all languages have a word for "touch." The problem comes when there is an idiom or euphemism. For example, the idiom "touched in the head" would have to be translated with something like "mentally unstable."

In 1 Cor. 7:1 we have the phrase, "It is good for a man not to touch a woman" (KJV). The Greek word is ἅπτεσθαι, the present middle infinitive of ἅπτω, which is the normal word for the verb "touch." Now traditionally this has always been translated simply "to touch," but some modern versions treat the phrase "touch a woman" as an idiom, thus: "It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman" (ESV). Frankly, I think that is ridiculous.

Think about it. If you are married, then you should have relations with your wife? (The word for "woman" is gune, γυνή, also meaning "wife.") In the context, Paul is clearly talking about avoiding sexual sin. (See the next verse.) Now would Paul be saying, "It is good if you do not commit fornication"? Not on your life. He'd be saying clearly that it was sin. Now, where does sexual sin start? You can't commit it without touching. So it is good not to touch a woman. This is not saying that it is a sin to touch a woman--for example you are helping an old lady cross the street, administering CPR to a woman, etc. It's simply a good idea to have a personal standard of not touching women unnecessarily. (How many politicians have gotten in trouble lately by just touching a woman?)

So where did the modern translator get the idea that "touch a woman" is a Greek idiom? I have no idea. There are no other passages in the NT where it looks like it could mean that. I assume that somewhere some Greek scholar found a secular Greek document that seems to use the phrase as an idiom, but I've not seen such an argument yet. Anyone?

There is a proverb that goes with this issue, Proverbs 6:29, "So he that goeth in to his neighbour's wife; whosoever toucheth her shall not be innocent."

 

[John of Japan]

It might be good to remember that απτω is also used for starting a fire and not exactly for sticking your hand into an already burning fire.

Exactly my thought.

 

[John of Japan]

There is a proverb that goes with this issue, Proverbs 6:29, "So he that goeth in to his neighbour's wife; whosoever toucheth her shall not be innocent."

Yes, that is one place out of several mentioned by advocates of the "relations" view. I'm not convinced, personally, that this proves the point that it means carnal relationship itself. The relationship actually must start with a touch.

 

[John of Japan]

I've consulted two commentaries about this. First of all, Mare writes:

“though the verb ἅπτομαι, in the middle voice, literally means ‘to touch, take a hold of,’ in this context it means ‘to have sexual relations with.’ Since Paul has been arguing against illicit sexual relations in chapter 5, he obviously is referring here to legitimate marriage relations. This verbal expression is a euphemism for such relations (cf. Jos. Ant 1, 163; Gen 20:6; Prov 6:29).”
W. Harold Mare, “1 Corinthians, The Expositor’s Bible Commentary, Vol. 10., Frank E. Gaebelein, gen. ed. (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1976), 231.

However, he misses the boat with this, because there are three other usages of the word in the middle voice that definitely do not refer to anything other than an ordinary touch:

Leviticus 15:23 ἐὰν δὲ ἐν τῇ κοίτῃ αὐτῆς οὔσης ἢ ἐπὶ τοῦ σκεύους οὗ ἐὰν καθίσῃ ἐπ᾽ αὐτῷ ἐν τῷ ἅπτεσθαι αὐτὸν αὐτῆς ἀκάθαρτος ἔσται ἕως ἑσπέρας
23 And if it be on her bed, or on any thing whereon she sitteth, when he toucheth it, he shall be unclean until the even. (KJV)

2 Maccabees 9:10 καὶ τὸν μικρῷ πρότερον τῶν οὐρανίων ἄστρων ἅπτεσθαι δοκοῦντα παρακομίζειν οὐδεὶς ἐδύνατο διὰ τὸ τῆς ὀσμῆς ἀφόρητον βάρος
Shortly before, he had thought that he could reach the stars of heaven… (NAB).

Luke 6:19 καὶ πᾶς ὁ ὄχλος ἐζήτουν ἅπτεσθαι αὐτοῦ, ὅτι δύναμις παρ᾽ αὐτοῦ ἐξήρχετο καὶ ἰᾶτο πάντας.
19 And the whole multitude sought to touch him: for there went virtue out of him, and healed them all. (KJV)

Concerning his other two Scriptures (Gen. 20:6, Prov. 6:29), I'm not convinced. Either one of them could be interpreted as just a touch, though it is likely that the Prov. 6:29 verse refers to an improper touch. The adulterer does not jump wholesale into adultery, but there is usually a process that begins with the improper touch.

Gordon Fee writes in his huge commentary:

“The idiom ‘to touch a woman’ occurs nine times in Greek antiquity, ranging across six centuries and a variety of writers, and in every other instance, without ambiguity it refers to having sexual intercourse.”
Here is the footnote for that: “See Plato, leg. 8.840a; Aristot., Pol. 7.14.12; Gen. 20:6 (LXX); Ruth 2:9 (LXX); Prov. 6:29 (LXX); Plutarch, Alex.M. 21.4; Jos., Ant. I.163; Mar.Aur.Ant. 1.17.6. These are given in English translation in Fee, ‘1 Corinthians 7:1,’ p. 308.”
Gordon D. Fee, The First Epistle to the Corinthians, NICNT (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans,1987), 275.

I checked a couple of his classical sources, and in my reading they are certainly not "without ambiguity." For example, here is his Plutarch reference:

Plutarch—
[4] But Alexander, as it would seem, considering the mastery of himself a more kingly thing than the conquest of his enemies, neither laid hands upon these women, nor did he know any other before marriage, except Barsiné. (Accessed at: Plutarch, Alexander, chapter 21).

Now it is easy to imagine an accused adulterer (or rapist, or murderer, or batterer) saying, "I never laid a hand on her."

 

[37818]

Yes, that is one place out of several mentioned by advocates of the "relations" view. I'm not convinced, personally, that this proves the point that it means carnal relationship itself. The relationship actually must start with a touch.

I am in agreement with you. Touch means a touch. And can indeed lead to more. But a mere touch is a mere touch.

 

[Yeshua1]

Yes, that is one place out of several mentioned by advocates of the "relations" view. I'm not convinced, personally, that this proves the point that it means carnal relationship itself. The relationship actually must start with a touch.

Could Paul be referring to do not touch a woman not married to in the sense of do not become emotional/physically intimate with her? Do not seek to get close to her, so to speak?

 

[John of Japan]

Could Paul be referring to do not touch a woman not married to in the sense of do not become emotional/physically intimate with her? Do not seek to get close to her, so to speak?

I have not seen that usage of the verb anywhere. I believe Paul meant "touch," no more and no less. All sexual sin must begin with touching. All touching is not sinful, so Paul said it is good not to touch, not that touching was sinful. If he had meant sexual sin in the verse, he would have said so.

 

[Yeshua1]

I have not seen that usage of the verb anywhere. I believe Paul meant "touch," no more and no less. All sexual sin must begin with touching. All touching is not sinful, so Paul said it is good not to touch, not that touching was sinful. If he had meant sexual sin in the verse, he would have said so.

I agree with you here that Paul is not stating do not have sex with her, but just was suggesting perhaps he is telling one to set up boundaries early on in order to keep from going all the way, so to speak?

 

[John of Japan]

I agree with you here that Paul is not stating do not have sex with her, but just was suggesting perhaps he is telling one to set up boundaries early on in order to keep from going all the way, so to speak?

"Touch" still means "touch."

 

[John of Japan]

Believe it or not, the simple word "prayer" can be difficult to translate into a tribal language, though major religions usually have equivalent words. John R. Rice wrote a bestselling book based on the Greek meaning, Prayer: Asking and Receiving. He based his teaching on the fact that one verb for praying in the Bible clearly means "to ask." The word Christ used to teach prayer in the Sermon on the Mount was aiteo (αἰτέω): "7 Ask, and it shall be given you; seek, and ye shall find; knock, and it shall be opened unto you: 8 For every one that asketh receiveth; and he that seeketh findeth; and to him that knocketh it shall be opened."

The key to translating this correctly is that the word chosen must be one that shows power in the One being petitioned, not in the prayer itself or some ceremony. My wife and I are reading in our family devotions a great book by translator Neil Anderson, In Search of the Source. Anderson translated the Bible under Wycliffe into the language of the Folopa tribe of Papua, New Guinea. A native evangelist named Kiraparake had seen much fruit among the tribe, but the word they had been using for prayer was not quite right. The Folopa word hoso was used whenever actions were pursued that needed blessing: planting, hunting, etc. However, it was more like an incantation than an actual prayer to God Almighty. the word they finally came up with was moma, which was used for asking the spirits for things, but depended on the power of the petitioned one rather than ceremony. And true prayer to God thus became real to the Folopa tribespeople!

Check out this link telling how Anderson discovered the word for "ransom."--https://www.wycliffe.org/blog/posts/the-big-exchange

Here is where the Folopa people were given their New Testaments:

Here is the book on Amazon: https://www.amazon.com/Search-Sourc...prefix=In+search+of+the+source,aps,171&sr=8-2

 

[John of Japan]

I just got a question from a Japanese pastor friend about the word Πέτρος "Peter." He asked if it means a small stone fallen from a boulder. I shared with him that a Greek-Japanese lexicon that I have defines it as a pebble, or a piece of a large stone or boulder. Of course I also shared the word petra (πέτρα) means a boulder or bedrock, as it is used in Matthew 7:24-25). So,

"Peter," or petros, only occurs as the name of the disciple in the NT. Petra occurs 15 times. Another Greek word for rock, lithos (λίθος) occurs many times. Friberg's Anlex defines it: "(1) literally; (a) stone, piece of rock as used for various purposes: building material ( MT 24.2), sealing graves (MT 27.60), millstones for processing food (RV 18.21), flat stones for engraved writing (2C 3.7), etc.; (b) of precious stones jewels (RV 4.3 ); (c) of idols stone image (AC 17.29); (2) metaphorically, of Christ as the keystone in God's spiritual temple (MT 21.42); of Christians as living stones in God's spiritual temple (1P 2.5)."

The translator might run into difficulty rendering these words into tribal languages when the tribe lives in the jungle. (I'm speculating.) Depending on the jungle, rocks and stones may not be common. Bedrock might be non-existant, so how would you translate the parable of the wise man and the foolish man?

 

[Van]

Since it is sometimes unclear whether "touch" a women refers to mistreatment, or simply a innocent contact, the literal meaning (touch) should be in the main text of the translation, and if the translators believe the word is being used idiomatically or euphemistically then a footnote should be used to indicate the possibility. By always presenting the literal version in the main text, then (if any) the linkage to other verses is preserved.

 

[John of Japan]

I'm back here for another. (Last week was incredibly busy.) Today's word is the English verb "worship." I count 8 verbs translated "worship" in the KJV. Apparently the Greeks and Jews knew a lot more about worship than we do! Some of these are difficult to get into English in a solid equivalent, and simply "worship" would be best in most cases.

My favorite is #2, which can mean both to worship (like in a worship service) and to serve. To me, both concepts are wrapped up in the verb, so we are worshipping when we serve God.

1. Προσκθνἐω—physically bow down; occurs 64 times in the NT, 23 times in the Gospels. The wise men did this in Matt. 2:2, 2:11.

2. Λατρεύω—to serve; occurs 31 times in the NT. Key verse, Luke 2:37—“And she was a widow of about fourscore and four years, which departed not from the temple, but served God with fastings and prayers night and day.” See also Phil. 3:3, Heb. 9:9

3. Σεβάομαι—only in Rom. 1:25—“Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.” This appears to be a generic word for worship.

4. Σέβω (only in the middle voice in the NT, σέβομαι)—devoutness, being devout. Ten times in the NT: Matt. 15:9 & Mark 7:7 then 8 times in Acts. Used of Gentile proselytes Lydia (Acts 16:14) and Justus (Acts 18:7).

5. Εὐσεβέω—be pious; Acts 17:23, used of the people of Athens worshipping the unknown God. Only there and in 1 Tim. 5:4—“But if any widow have children or nephews, let them learn first to shew piety at home, and to requite their parents: for that is good and acceptable before God.” Friberg: εὐσεβέω (1) as conducting oneself with reverent regard for God worship (AC 17.23); (2) as putting religion into practice at home fulfill one's duties toward, be devoted to (one's own household members) (1T 5.4)

6. θεραπεύω—“heal” in probably every verse in the NT (43 verses), but “worship” in Acts 17:25 in the sense of helping God.

7. Λειτουργέω—doing service to God or performing worship as a priest. Friberg: λειτοθργέω 1aor. ἐλειτούργησα; strictly perform a public service; in the NT of religious and ritual service; (1) of a priest officiate, minister, perform religious duties (HE 10.11); (2) of a Christian's service to God through prayer, teaching, good works, etc. serve, minister, worship (AC 13.2)

8. Κάμπτω—to bow (the knee, γόνυ). Only in Rom. 11: 4, 14:11, Eph. 3:14 and Phil 2:10.

 

[John of Japan]

Now, here are the nouns translated "worship" in the KJV:

1. Ἐθελοθρησκεία—“will worship,” only in Col. 2:23. “Self-made religion.” Friberg: ἐθελοθρησκία, ας, ἡ (also ἐθελοθρησκεία) self-made religion, self-imposed worship, self-willed observance (CO 2.23)”

2. Λατρεία—the noun cognate of λατρεύω, worship by serving.

3. Σέβασμα—the act of worship or devotion (Acts 17:23, 2 Thess. 2:4). Friberg: "σέβασμα, ατος, τό (1) object of worship or veneration (2TH 2.4; possibly AC 17.23); (2) a place held in veneration or reverent awe sanctuary, altar (possibly AC 17.23)."

4. Θρησκεία—4 times: “religion” in James 1:26 & 27 and Acts 26:5, “worship” in Col. 2:18, "worshipping of angels." Worship as a religion. Friberg: "θρησκεία, ας, ἡ (also θρησκία) religion, religious service or worship (CO 2.18); especially as expressed in a system of external observances (AC 26.5)."

5. Λειτουργία—service to God as a priest; six times in the NT: Friberg: "λειτουργία, ας, ἡ strictly public service performed by an individual; in the NT of religious service; (1) as the ritual activity of priests (priestly) service (LU 1.23); (2) as the activity of Christians service, ministry (PH 2.30)."

 

[John of Japan]

Oddly enough, there is one very strange rendering of "worship" in the KJV based on a Greek phrase:

Τότε ἔσται σοι δόξα—literally, “It will be glory to you”; “Thou shalt have worship” in Luke 14:10 KJV. This is definitely a mistake in the KJV. It's in the wedding parable of the chapter, and the whole verse reads like this: "But when thou art bidden, go and sit down in the lowest room; that when he that bade thee cometh, he may say unto thee, Friend, go up higher: then shalt thou have worship in the presence of them that sit at meat with thee."

So, if the KJV is right, we have Jesus teaching that it is okay to worship a human, not just God. But the word is "glory," not ever translated elsewhere as "worship," but always (as far as I know) as "glory" (166 times in the Greek NT).

 

[rlvaughn]

Oddly enough, there is one very strange rendering of "worship" in the KJV based on a Greek phrase:

Τότε ἔσται σοι δόξα...So, if the KJV is right, we have Jesus teaching that it is okay to worship a human, not just God. But the word is "glory," not ever translated elsewhere as "worship," but always (as far as I know) as "glory" (166 times in the Greek NT).

Thanks for calling attention to this. I had an interesting look at the English word "worship." I doubt that the KJV translators or those English translators before them thought it is okay to worship a human, but rather used it in its range of meaning of "condition of being worthy" or "extravagant admiration." What I found interesting, though, when looking at the word, is that Etymology.com said that the sense of reverence paid to a supernatural or divine being (for the word worship) is first recorded circa 1300. (Would love to see what the OED has on that.) Wycliffe used worschipe in that latter sense, but, in the other way in Luke 14:10. As best I could tell, the Anglo-Saxon Gospels consistently used a completely different word for reverence to God (gebiddon, gebiddað, etc.). On the other hand, they did use a word related to weorðscipe (worthy condition) -- wurðmynt -- in Luke 14:10. All this to say that the idea of worship as "condition of being worthy" likely still inhabited the minds of the 16th and 17th century English much more so than it does 20th and 21st century Americans, who might never think of it. The 1885 ERV changed the word to "glory" and most later Bibles followed.

 

[John of Japan]

Thanks for calling attention to this. I had an interesting look at the English word "worship." I doubt that the KJV translators or those English translators before them thought it is okay to worship a human, but rather used it in its range of meaning of "condition of being worthy" or "extravagant admiration." What I found interesting, though, when looking at the word, is that Etymology.com said that the sense of reverence paid to a supernatural or divine being (for the word worship) is first recorded circa 1300. (Would love to see what the OED has on that.) Wycliffe used worschipe in that latter sense, but, in the other way in Luke 14:10. As best I could tell, the Anglo-Saxon Gospels consistently used a completely different word for reverence to God (gebiddon, gebiddað, etc.). On the other hand, they did use a word related to weorðscipe (worthy condition) -- wurðmynt -- in Luke 14:10. All this to say that the idea of worship as "condition of being worthy" likely still inhabited the minds of the 16th and 17th century English much more so than it does 20th and 21st century Americans, who might never think of it. The 1885 ERV changed the word to "glory" and most later Bibles followed.

Good post. Thanks much!

My caveat would be that while your assessment is no doubt accurate, as far as I know the KJV uses "worship" in all other places to mean the worship of God (or idols).

 

[rlvaughn]

My caveat would be that while your assessment is no doubt accurate, as far as I know the KJV uses "worship" in all other places to mean the worship of God (or idols).

That may be correct. I have not checked that. On the other hand, I did check δοξα and found both the KJV and NASB translates it with a few other words, though predominantly "glory". Other words include dignity, glorious, honour, praise, worship (KJV), and approval, brightness, glorious, honor, majesties (NASB).