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The LORD said to My Lord…

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Yeshua1

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37818 said:
John 17:3, ". . . And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent. . . ."
John 20:, ". . . Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God. . . ."
1 Timothy 2:5, ". . . For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; . . ."
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God the Father and God the Sin there, NOT saying that Jesus is not the same as Yahweh!
 
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Yeshua1

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Van said:
Why waste time hurling one false charge after another. I said God made Jesus our Lord and Messiah. Attributing falsehoods to me by implication using loaded questions is the hallmark of a false teacher.

“Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Messiah—this Jesus whom you crucified.”

Here the Greek word translated "Lord" refers to Christ being so to speak the "owner/master" of humanity because He bought humankind with His blood.
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Is Jesus Yahweh?
 
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Yeshua1

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SavedByGrace said:
your theology IS HERETICAL! Your own words condemn you!

"Jesus was born and grew up to be a man"

NO! NO! NO!

Jesus Christ IS 100% YHWH, The Almighty God, Who IS from all eternity 100% COEQUAL and COESSENTIAL with God The Father and God The Holy Spirit. In the Godhead none of The Three Persons are "superior" to the other, or "inferior" to the other. At His Incarnation, Jesus Christ, the eternal YHWH, by the power of God the Holy Spirit, entered the womb of the virgin Mary, and was conceived in her, and was born out of her human nature, 100% human, with the exception of any sin. Jesus Christ REMAINED YHWH, and thereafter BECAME and not CHANGED into The God-Man, 100% God and 100% Man. Jesus Christ was NOT on earth only a human being, Who "gave up" His Deity. Two complete "natures" God and Man, unmixed in the One Person. "God was manifest in the flesh", as the Bible says in 1 Timothy 3:16, and "The Word became flesh", as we read in John 1:14.

Your statement, "Jesus was born and grew up to be a man", is HERESY, as this exculdes His Deity!
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He seems to mix together some JW/Oneness, and Kenosis theology!
 
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Van

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Why waste time hurling one false charge after another. I said God made Jesus our Lord and Messiah. Attributing falsehoods to me by implication using loaded questions is the hallmark of a false teacher.

“Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Messiah—this Jesus whom you crucified.”

Here the Greek word translated "Lord" refers to Christ being so to speak the "owner/master" of humanity because He bought humankind with His blood.
 
Y

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Van said:
Why waste time hurling one false charge after another. I said God made Jesus our Lord and Messiah. Attributing falsehoods to me by implication using loaded questions is the hallmark of a false teacher.

“Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Messiah—this Jesus whom you crucified.”

Here the Greek word translated "Lord" refers to Christ being so to speak the "owner/master" of humanity because He bought humankind with His blood.
Click to expand...
Is Jesus the Yahweh of the OT?
 
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Van

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Yeshua1 said:
Is Jesus the Yahweh of the OT?
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This falsifier does not answer questions, but asks them. He makes up false insinuations and posts them.

The OT verse (Psalm 110:1) using a literal translation should be rendered, Yahweh said to the master of me."

Sometimes, when plural, the Hebrew word translated "master" above refers to God, but when singular, as in this case, refers to a human entity.
 
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Yeshua1

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Van said:
This falsifier does not answer questions, but asks them. He makes up false insinuations and posts them.

The OT verse (Psalm 110:1) using a literal translation should be rendered, Yahweh said to the master of me."

Sometimes, when plural, the Hebrew word translated "master" above refers to God, but when singular, as in this case, refers to a human entity.
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So Jesus was not claiming to be Yahweh?
 
37818

37818

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Yeshua1 said:
God the Father and God the S[o]n there, NOT saying that Jesus is not the same as Yahweh!
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Oh, am I to understand what in the man Jesus Christ in 1Timothy 2:5? The one mediator between God and man the God Jesus Christ?
 
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Van

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Why waste time hurling one false charge after another. I said God made Jesus our Lord and Messiah. Attributing falsehoods to me by implication using loaded questions is the hallmark of a false teacher.

“Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Messiah—this Jesus whom you crucified.”

Here the Greek word translated "Lord" refers to Christ being so to speak the "owner/master" of humanity because He bought humankind with His blood.

The second “Lord” in “the LORD says to my Lord” is the Messiah, or the Christ. Psalm 110 describes this second “Lord” as follows:

● He sits at God’s right hand (verse 1)
● He will triumph over all His enemies and rule over them (verses 1–2)
● He will lead a glorious procession of troops (verse 3)
● He will be “a priest forever, in the order of Melchizedek” (verse 4)
● He will have divine power to crush kings, judge nations, and slay the wicked (verses 5–6)
● He will find refreshment and be exalted (verse 7)
What does it mean that “the Lord said to my Lord”? | GotQuestions.org​
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