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The LORD said to My Lord…
- Thread starter SavedByGrace
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Jesus is Jesus Christ!
37818
Well-Known Member
Why is He both Lord and Christ [God]? John 20:28. Acts of the Apostles 2:36.
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SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
You again FAIL to understand that Jesus Christ IS from all eternity The Great I AM, YHWH, and that at His Incarnation He Himself took upon Him the "nature of a servant", while He remained Almighty God. Jesus from that this IS The God-Man, 100% God and 100% Man, sin excepted. During His time on earth, He was for "a little while lower than the angels" (Hebrews 2:9), which means that Jesus Himself became "subordinate" to God the Father. This is functional and not eternal. Philippians 2:5-11, explains this very clearly:
5 In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
7 rather, he made himself nothing
by taking the very nature of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
by becoming obedient to death—
even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father.
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
Indeed, he just does not get this.
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
I think that either you and this person "Van" are one and the same, or you get your Christology from him! You still cannot understand the Holy Trinity.
You are asking a question for the purpose of denying my posts.
I think that you cannot accept that you are wrong concerning the meaning of "the LORD said to my Lord."
Outrageous falsehoods are posted by those who misrepresent scripture non-stop.
Why waste time hurling one false charge after another. I said God made Jesus our Lord and Messiah. Attributing falsehoods to me by implication using loaded questions is the hallmark of a false teacher.
“Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Messiah—this Jesus whom you crucified.”
Here the Greek word translated "Lord" refers to Christ being so to speak the "owner/master" of humanity because He bought humankind with His blood.
What does it mean that “the Lord said to my Lord”? | GotQuestions.org
“Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Messiah—this Jesus whom you crucified.”
Here the Greek word translated "Lord" refers to Christ being so to speak the "owner/master" of humanity because He bought humankind with His blood.
What does it mean that “the Lord said to my Lord”? | GotQuestions.org
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
You seem not to be able to admit obvious error on your part.
The question is not my very limited knowledge of Hebrew and Greek, the question is your denial of the inspired text.
Using insult to hide error is the stock and trade of false teachers...
Why waste time hurling one false charge after another. I said God made Jesus our Lord and Messiah. Attributing falsehoods to me by implication using loaded questions is the hallmark of a false teacher.
“Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Messiah—this Jesus whom you crucified.”
Here the Greek word translated "Lord" refers to Christ being so to speak the "owner/master" of humanity because He bought humankind with His blood.
What does it mean that “the Lord said to my Lord”? | GotQuestions.org
The OT verse (Psalm 110:1) using a literal translation should be rendered, Yahweh said to the master of me."
Sometimes, when plural, the Hebrew word translated "master" above refers to God, but when singular, as in this case, refers to a human entity.
“Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Messiah—this Jesus whom you crucified.”
Here the Greek word translated "Lord" refers to Christ being so to speak the "owner/master" of humanity because He bought humankind with His blood.
What does it mean that “the Lord said to my Lord”? | GotQuestions.org
The OT verse (Psalm 110:1) using a literal translation should be rendered, Yahweh said to the master of me."
Sometimes, when plural, the Hebrew word translated "master" above refers to God, but when singular, as in this case, refers to a human entity.
37818
Well-Known Member
My Christology is from the Bible.
God in order to be God has to be three "Persons."
God is uncaused.
A cause is always finite and temporal.
So an uncaused Cause is both God and finite and temporal. A second Person.
That the first Person and the second Person are one essence.
The third Person is the uncaused Essence by which the three Persons are the One.
Compare and note Romans 8:9. Romans 8:16. John 4:24.
Footnote from NET Bible concerning Matthew 22:44
The Lord said to my Lord. With David being the speaker, this indicates his respect for his descendant (referred to as my Lord). Jesus was arguing, as the ancient exposition assumed, that the passage is about the Lord’s anointed. The passage looks at an enthronement of this figure and a declaration of honor for him as he takes his place at the side of God. In Jerusalem, the king’s palace was located to the right of the temple to indicate this kind of relationship. Jesus was pressing the language here to get his opponents to reflect on how great Messiah is.
The Lord said to my Lord. With David being the speaker, this indicates his respect for his descendant (referred to as my Lord). Jesus was arguing, as the ancient exposition assumed, that the passage is about the Lord’s anointed. The passage looks at an enthronement of this figure and a declaration of honor for him as he takes his place at the side of God. In Jerusalem, the king’s palace was located to the right of the temple to indicate this kind of relationship. Jesus was pressing the language here to get his opponents to reflect on how great Messiah is.
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
So the essence of the Holy Spirit is different from the Father and Jesus Christ?
37818
Well-Known Member
You are saying they are different, not me.
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