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Featured Jesus Christ is Almighty God

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by SavedByGrace, May 19, 2021.

  1. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord, “Who is and Who was and Who is to come, the Almighty.” (Revelation 1:8)

    Here Jesus Christ is the Speaker, Who calls Himself “ὁ Παντοκράτωρ”, THE ALMIGHTY.

    It is very clear from this chapter, and from others, that the Speaker here is the Lord Jesus Christ, and not as some suppose, God the Father.

    In verse 1 we read, “The Revelation of Jesus Christ”, and in verse 2, “and to the testimony of Jesus Christ”. Then in verse 5, “and from Jesus Christ, the faithful witness, the firstborn from the dead, and the ruler over the kings of the earth To Him who loved us and washed us from our sins in His own blood”. Again, in verse 7 of the Lord Jesus, “ Behold, He is coming with clouds, and every eye will see Him, even they who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. Even so, Amen”. Then we have the words in verse 8, “I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End,” says the Lord, “Who is and Who was and Who is to come, the Almighty”. Then in verse 9 we read, “and patience of Jesus Christ…and for the testimony of Jesus Christ”. Verse 10, “the Lord’s Day”. And 11, “saying, I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, and, What you see, write in a book and send it to the seven churches which are in Asia: to Ephesus, to Smyrna, to Pergamos, to Thyatira, to Sardis, to Philadelphia, and to Laodicea.”. In the next chapter, in verse 8 Jesus is speaking, “‘These things says the First and the Last, who was dead, and came to life”. Again, in Revelation chapter 22, Jesus is the Speaker, “And behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to give to every one according to his work. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last.”.

    There is no reason to take the words in verse 8, as spoken by God the Father. All of what we have read here, is about Jesus Christ, and spoken by Jesus Christ. It is only that some “theologically” cannot accept that Jesus Christ can be called “The Almighty”, who would have a problem with this passage as referred to Jesus as the Speaker. On the words, “the First and the Last”, it is interesting to note the remarks of Dr Thayer, in his Greek lexicon: “ὁ πρῶτος καί ὁ ἔσχατος, i. e. the eternal One, Rev 1:17; Rev 2:8; Rev 22:13”. Jesus Christ says of Himself, that He IS “The Eternal One”, how then can some say that Jesus was created at some time? As He IS “The Eternal One”, he must be Almighty God. Dr Thayer was a Unitarian, who denied Jesus Christ IS God. In Exodus 3:14 we read the Name that God gave to Moses, “I AM THAT I AM”. The Greek translation of the Old Testament (LXX), made some 100 years before Jesus Christ was born, have rendered the Hebrew as “Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν”, that is, “I am The Eternal One”, which is what Jesus says of Himself in Revelation. In Isaiah 44:6 it says, “Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god”. The Speaker here is Yahweh. Jesus Christ uses these same words for Himself.

    In Isaiah 9:6, the Prophecy of the Lord Jesus Christ, one of the Names that He has, is “’êl Gibbôr”, which is correctly translated as “Mighty God”. Here too there are some who try to weaken this to “God-like Hero”. However, when the exact same Hebrew is used in chapter 10:21, for Yahweh, it is never translated as “God-like Hero”, but always as “Mighty God”. Why the difference? This is a theological block for some. Interestingly, that in 9:6, the Jewish Bible by Isaac Leeser, reads, “the mighty God”; and in the 2013 edition of the New World Translation, the Jehovah’s Witnesses translate the Hebrew, “Mighty God”. So the JW’s deny in their “theology”, that Jesus Christ is “God”, as they corrupt John 1:1 to read, “and the Word was a god”, yet here in Isaiah 9:6, they clearly call Jesus Christ, not just “God”, but, “Mighty God”. So it is clear that there are TWO, Who are equally called in the Old Testament, “’êl Gibbôr”. Surely this proves beyond any doubt, that a belief in the God of the Holy Bible, as being “UniPersonal”, is wrong.

    Back to Revelation chapter 1, we go on to read from verses 12-16, a description of the Risen Lord Jesus Christ, Who here appears to the Apostle John. In verses 17-18, we have Jesus speaking, “Do not be afraid; I am the First and the Last. I am He who lives, and was dead, and behold, I am alive forevermore. Amen”.Again Jesus uses the words spoken by Yahweh in Isaiah, for Himself. Then He says, “I am He who lives”, which in the Greek is, “ο ζων”, which is in the present, continuance, literally, “The Ever-Living One”. As the LXX has in Exodus 3:14. Then Jesus continues, “and I am ever living for all the ages to the ages”.

    In Revelation 5:12 we read about Jesus, “Worthy is the Lamb that was slaughtered to receive: the power, wealth, wisdom, might, honor, glory, and blessing.”. In the Greek we have the definite article “την”, before the word “δυναμιν” (power), and the following words taken together “και” (and), all in the accusative case. ALL THE Power, Wealth, Wisdom, Might, Honor, Glory, Blessing”, belong to Jesus Christ! Impossible for anyone who is a created being, and not Himself Almighty God. In fact, in the next two verses in this chapter, we read, “To Him who sits on the throne and to the Lamb be the blessing, the honor, the glory, and the power forever and ever.” And the four living creatures were saying, “Amen.” And the elders fell down and worshiped”. Notice that this to directed to, “Him Who sits on the throne AND (και) to the Lamb”. BOTH TOGETHER. In chapter 22, verse 1 it says, “And he showed me a river of water of life, bright as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb”. The Greek here is very interesting, “του θρονου του θεου και του αρνιου”. We have the article “του”, with “God” and “The Lamb”, showing that there are TWO “distinct” Persons. And, “θρονου” (throne), is in the singular, which means that THEIR Reign is JOINT. Showing complete equality. The same is in verse 3. In Revelation 11:15, we read: “The kingdom of the world is become [the kingdom] of our Lord, and of his Christ: and He shall reign for ever and ever”. “He shall Reign” is one word in the Greek, “βασιλευσει”, which is also in the singular, yet we have “Our Lord”, which is the Father, and “His Christ”, TWO. Clearly of Joint-Reign. The Father Who is Almighty God, will never jointly Reign with a lesser being.

    No one who says that they believe that the Holy Bible is the Infallible, Inerrant, Word of God, can deny what the Bible actually says that Jesus Christ IS Almighty God, The Great I AM, Yahweh.
     
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  2. AustinC

    AustinC Well-Known Member

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    Who are you arguing with?
    Jesus is God, YHWH, all Trinitarians believe this. Is God the Holy Spirit also YHWH as well as God the Father? Yes.
    Is God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit each individual person's who function independently, yet are one and never act in contradiction with each other? Yes.
    Donnall and Connal say it best...
     
  3. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    @SavedByGrace,
    But then how is Jesus Christ as God Almighty the Son of God Almighty the Father? What makes one the Father and the other the Son? How do you explain this important difference?
     
  4. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    I thought that you said that you believe in the Trinity? The Father is Almighty God. The Son is Almighty God. The Holy Spirit is Almighty God. Three disctinct Persons, in One Godhead or Divine Being. I hold that Jesus Christ became known as "Son", at His Incarnation. This is what it says in Luke 1:35; Hebrews 1:5, etc
     
  5. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Yes there are the Trinity of Persons who are equally God Almighty. But that is not what I asked. Based on your answer, am I to understand the Person known as the Son only became the Son at His incarnation, Luke 1:35? Your reference to Hebrews 1:5 has to do with His resurrection per Acts of the Apostles 13:33. You did understand that?
     
  6. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Luke 1:35 shows that the Word of God, was known as the "Son" at His Incarnation. I understand Hebrews 1:5, and Acts 13:33 to refer to the Incarnation, not the Resurrection
     
  7. tyndale1946

    tyndale1946 Well-Known Member
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    Then you run into a slight problem... If God is not in three person, then according to these scriptures and you know me by reading my posts I quote scripture, not my personal opinion as some do... What are you going to do with these verses... Is Jesus presenting the Kingdom to himself?... Brother Glen:)

    1 Corinthians 15:24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.

    15:25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.

    15:26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.

    15:27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.

    15:28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

    Btw... This is the third time I've quoted these scriptures, it seems to me someday someone is going to get it!
     
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  8. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Not His resurrection? ". . . he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. . . ."
     
  9. tyndale1946

    tyndale1946 Well-Known Member
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    God the Father... Gave... Jesus Christ the Son... Saves... And the Holy Spirit births those who are!... The Trinity in a nutshell... Brother Glen:)
     
    #9 tyndale1946, May 20, 2021
    Last edited: May 20, 2021
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  10. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    so where did I ever say that God is not Three Persons? And what has a pasage of Jesus' Reign as Mediator, got to so with anything? This passage in 1 Corinthians is NOT about the eternal future Kingdom.
     
  11. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Expositor's Greek Textament

    Act_13:33. ἐκπεπλήρωκε: “hath fulfilled to the utmost,” cf. 3Ma_1:2; 3Ma_1:22, Polyb., i., 67, 1, τὰς ἐπαγγελίας ἐκπ.—τοῖς τέκνοις αὐτῶν ἡμῖν, see critical notes.—ἀναστήσας: “in that he raised up Jesus,” R.V.; “in that he hath raised up Jesus again,” A.V. The former rendering is quite compatible with the view that the reference of the word here is not to the resurrection of Jesus, but to the raising up of Jesus as the Messiah, cf. Act_3:22, Act_7:37, Deu_18:15. The first prophecy, Act_13:33, would be fulfilled in this way, whilst in Act_13:34-35 the prophecy would be fulfilled by the resurrection from the dead, ἀνασ. ἐκ νεκρῶν (see Knabenbauer in loco, p. 233 ff.). Wendt argues that Heb_1:5, where the same prophecy is quoted as in Act_13:33, also refers to the raising up as the Messiah, but see on the other hand Westcott, Hebrews, in loco.

    A T Robertson, Word Pictures

    Unto our children (τοις τεκνοις ημων). The MSS. vary greatly here about ημων (our), some have αυτων, some αυτων ημιν. Westcott and Hort consider these readings "a primitive error" for ημιν (to us) taken with αναστησας Ιησουν (having for us raised up Jesus). This raising up (from ανιστημ, set up) as in Acts 3:22; Acts 7:37 refers not to resurrection (verse 34), but to the sending of Jesus (two raisings up).
    In the second psalm (εν τω ψαλμω τω δευτερω). Ps 2:7. D has πρωτω because the first psalm was often counted as merely introductory.

    Bob Utley Commentary

    This same verb, "raised up" (anistçmi), is used in Acts 3:26 of God raising up "His Servant"; in Acts 3:22 of God raising up the Prophet (cf. Acts 7:37; Deut. 18:19). This seems to be a distinct usage from "raised" from the dead (cf. Acts 13:30,34,37). Jesus was "raised up" before He died!

    Read the next verse, which is clearly about the Resurrection

    And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.

    First "Rising", is for the First Coming of Jesus Christ as the Messiah, which is in verse 33. The Second "Rising" is to the Resurrection of Jesus, which is in verse 34.
     
  12. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    They are both equally and eternally Yahweh!
     
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  13. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    was he not the Word and Logos of God the Father from all eternity?
     
  14. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Ok, you have references by which you feel justifed in your view.

    Jesus is called the firstborn from the dead, Colossians 1:18. Hebrews 1:5-6, ". . . For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son? And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him. . . ." And again in Hebrews 5:5, ". . . So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee. . . ." Which refers to His resurrection in becoming our high priest, and so in His post resurrection ascension, Hebrews 9:12, Hebrews 9:24.

    Acts of the Apostles 13:30-37, ". . . God raised him from the dead: And he was seen many days of them which came up with him from Galilee to Jerusalem, who are his witnesses unto the people. And we declare unto you glad tidings, how that the promise which was made unto the fathers, God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David. Wherefore he saith also in another psalm, Thou shalt not suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. For David, after he had served his own generation by the will of God, fell on sleep, and was laid unto his fathers, and saw corruption: But he, whom God raised again, saw no corruption. . . ."

    He was God's Son prior to being raised from the dead.
     
    #14 37818, May 21, 2021
    Last edited: May 21, 2021
  15. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Jesus is eternal Yahweh, but maybe not eternal Sonship!
     
  16. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    but NOT before His Incarnation
     
  17. AustinC

    AustinC Well-Known Member

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    Yes... before the incarnation. God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit have always been from eternity past to eternity forward.

    Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power. After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, having become as much superior to angels as the name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs.
    ~ Hebrews 1:1-4
     
  18. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    was He ever called the Son though in the OT, before He was incarnated?
     
  19. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Only in Prophecy, like Isaiah 9:6. Jesus Christ is called Yahweh, and Malakh Yahweh. In John 1:1, which is eternity past, Jesus is "the Logos", not "the Son".
     
  20. AustinC

    AustinC Well-Known Member

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    That is irrelevant. He is the King and He is the I AM.
     
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